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Discussion On Assessment Of Risks Essay Help From Professional Writers




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Assignment 1: Discussion—Assessment of Risks


Risks are common for all firms, but there are different levels of risks in different industries and in different countries. The differences in risks from firm to firm or industry to industry are called unsystematic risks. Consequently, individual firms and industries deal with risks in different ways.



Tasks:

Consider two companies that deal in two entirely different industries, such as Microsoft, which is a technology company, and Caterpillar Inc., which manufactures heavy equipment.


Respond to the following questions:



Explain how the risks and the approaches to anticipate these risks differ for each company.

Analyze the kinds of risks that are most intimidating for each.









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I request a five page essay, using a minimum of three academic sources, and proper APA formatting on the topic “pros and cons” of tariffs.  Should include introduction with thesis statement, body and closing, and reference page.










Questions on Demand and Supply mba essay help: mba essay help



Q#1


Juan’s demand curve for food is Y = 20 – 4P. Juan’s price elasticity of demand for food at price P* = -2/3. How much is P*? Use a graph to support your answer.


Q#2


In Afghanistan, coffee is illegal, so people sell coffee beans on the black market. The demand of coffee beans (Y) is Yd = 24 – P and the supply for coffee beans is Ys = 4P. Find the equilibrium price and quantity in the black market. Use a graph to support your answer.









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https://www.wsj.com/articles/emerging-markets-chocolate-lovers-boost-cocoa-prices-1404849640


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https://www.wsj.com/articles/ghana-faces-massive-shortfall-in-cocoa-crop-1434719593


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Assignment: Decision Making in Health Care college essay help los angeles: college essay help los angeles




Compare and contrast the difference between a for-profit and a not-for-profit healthcare system from a financial perspective. In your answer, be sure to provide examples of both, and the implications of each on the health professionals, the patients, and the insurance companies










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Guidelines for Course Paper


A paper on a macroeconomic topic is required for this course. As per your Course Outline, you are required to submit a written assignment (course paper) for this course. The written assignment is worth 25% of your course grade. Your course paper must be on one of the following three macroeconomic topics:


1.    The Great Recession of 2008 – Causes and Consequences


Once you have selected a topic, be sure to conduct a thorough Review of Literature on the subject. The minimum length of your course paper is 10 pages, double-spaced without the title page and the page on references. There is no upper page limit for your paper. Additional guidance will be provided during the first week of the course.


Organize your paper with five sections:


*    Introduction and objective. Make sure the objective is specific.


*    Literature Review. Conduct a search on the topic of your paper and summarize works of others similar to what you are writing on. Be sure to follow APA guidelines. The following link contains basics of APA style guidelines:


http://www.apastyle.org/learn/tutorials/basics-tutorial.aspx


*    Analysis: Analyze your topic with reference to the objective.


*    Summary and conclusion.


*    References. Provide at least five references, at least two of which must be scholarly books and /or journals.


You are welcome to send your topic and the objective of your paper to your instructor by the end of the first week so that she/he may provide additional guidance.










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Questions on Global Health english essay help




Question: What impact would the health status of a country have on the likelihood that people will invest in economic activity in the country?


1. Answer the question/complete the task

2. Include at least one academic article (less than 10 years old) or website in your discussion (however, you cannot use the reference used in the original question, find a new one). Do not use Wikipedia.

3. Be on time










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Questions on Health Care essay help tips



Question 1 2 / 2 points


Which statement about confusion is true?


Question options:


a) Confusion is a disease process.


b) Confusion is always temporary.


c) Age is a reliable predictor of confusion.


d) Polypharmacy is a major contributor to confusion in older adults.


Question 2 0 / 2 points


Sondra’s peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the following medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear?


Question options:


a) Meclizine


b) Diphenhydramine


c) Diamox


d) Promethazine


Question 3 2 / 2 points


The hallmark of an absence seizure is:


Question options:


a) No activity at all


b) A blank stare


c) Urine is usually voided involuntarily


d) The attack usually lasts several minutes


Question 4 2 / 2 points


How often should drug levels be monitored when a seizure medication has controlled the seizures, and the drug level is adequate?


Question options:


a) Every 3 months


b) Every 6 months


c) Annually


d) Whenever there is a problem


Question 5 2 / 2 points


Which of the following persons fits the classic description of a patient with multiple sclerosis (MS)?


Question options:


a) A teenage male


b) A 65-year-old male


c) A 25-year-old female


d) A 60-year-old female


Question 6 2 / 2 points


Which of the following is a specific test to MS?


Question options:


a) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)


b) Computed tomography (CT) scan


c) A lumbar puncture


d) There is no specific test.


Question 7 2 / 2 points


Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?


Question options:


a) Cholinesterase inhibitors


b) Anxiolytics


c) Antidepressants


d) Atypical antipsychotics


Question 8 2 / 2 points


Which hematoma occurs along the temporal cranial wall and results from tears in the middle meningeal artery?


Question options:


a) Epidural hematoma


b) Subdural hematoma


c) Subarachnoid hematoma


d) Intraparenchymal hemorrhage


Question 9 2 / 2 points


Which cranial nerve is affected in a patient with a cerebrovascular accident who has difficulty chewing?


Question options:


a) CN V


b) CN VII


c) CN IX


d) CN X


Question 10 2 / 2 points


Which statement best describes a carotid bruit?


Question options:


a) It is felt with the middle three fingers over the carotid artery.


b) A bruit becomes audible when the lumen is narrowed to 1 mm or less.


c) A low-pitched bruit is a medical emergency.


d) The higher the pitch of the bruit, the higher the degree of stenosis.


Question 11 2 / 2 points


Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?


Question options:


a) A female in her reproductive years


b) A 40-year-old African American male


c) A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily


d) A 45-year-old male awakened at night


Question 12 2 / 2 points


Inattention and a sleep-wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of?


Question options:


a) Dementia


b) Alzheimer’s disease


c) Parkinson’s disease


d) Delirium


Question 13 2 / 2 points


Which type of meningitis is more benign, self-limiting, and caused primarily by a virus?


Question options:


a) Purulent meningitis


b) Chronic meningitis


c) Aseptic meningitis


d) Herpes meningitis


Question 14 2 / 2 points


Which is the most sensitive neuroimaging test to evaluate patients with encephalitis?


Question options:


a) MRI


b) CT


c) Electroencephalogram (EEG)


d) An initial lumbar puncture


Question 15 2 / 2 points


What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?


Question options:


a) A stabbing pain on one small area of the body


b) A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body


c) A pain that is worse upon awakening


d) A lesion on the exterior ear canal


Question 16 1 / 1 point


Gabby, aged 22, has Bell’s palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her?


Question options:


a) “Most patients have complete recovery in 3 to 6 months.”


b) “Unfortunately, you’ll probably have a small amount of residual damage.”


c) “Don’t worry, I’ll take care of everything.”


d) “You may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent damage.”


Question 17 2 / 2 points


Sam, aged 65, is started on L-dopa for his Parkinson’s disease (PD). He asks why this is necessary. You tell him:


Question options:


a) “L-dopa is neuroprotective.”


b) “The primary goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine.”


c) “This is the only drug that can provide symptomatic benefit.”


d) “This is the initial monotherapy drug.”


Question 18 2 / 2 points


Which of the following signs is seen in a patient with more advanced PD?


Question options:


a) Resting tremor


b) Bradykinesia


c) Rigidity


d) Postural instability


Question 19 2 / 2 points


Which of the following is the most commonly experienced symptom of migraine?


Question options:


a) Light sensitivity


b) Pulsatile pain


c) Sound sensitivity


d) Experiencing an aura


Question 20 2 / 2 points


Which of the following characteristics differentiates peripheral vertigo from central vertigo?


Question options:


a) The duration of central vertigo is shorter than that of peripheral vertigo.


b) There is an auditory-associated symptom with peripheral vertigo and a visual-associated symptom with central vertigo.


c) Central vertigo is positional, and peripheral vertigo is not.


d) The onset of central vertigo is more sudden than that of peripheral vertigo.


Question 21 2 / 2 points


Carotid endarterectomy should be considered only for symptomatic patients with greater than what percentage of stenosis?


Question options:


a) Greater than 25%


b) Greater than 50%


c) Greater than 75%


d) Only for 100% occlusion


Question 22 2 / 2 points


What antiplatelet agent is most widely used for secondary prevention of stroke?


Question options:


a) Aspirin


b) Ticlopidine


c) Clopidogrel


d) Aspirin and clopidogrel


Question 23 2 / 2 points


Which adjunctive diagnostic test should be used in the work-up of a patient with suspected Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease or transient epileptic amnesia?


Question options:


a) MRI


b) CT


c) Cerebrospinal fluid analysis


d) EEG


Question 24 2 / 2 points


Which herbal preparation may cause delirium and should be avoided in an elderly patient?


Question options:


a) Sam-e


b) Saint John’s Wort


c) Melatonin


d) Saw Palmetto


Question 25 0 / 2 points


Which of the following activities is part of the functional activities questionnaire?


Question options:


a) Asking the patient to unravel a Rubik’s cube


b) Determining if the patient can drive on the highway


c) Asking the patient about a news event from the current week


d) Seeing if the patient can keep his or her home clean


Question 26 2 / 2 points


About 90% of all headaches are?


Question options:


a) Tension


b) Migraine


c) Cluster


d) Without pathological cause


Question 27 2 / 2 points


Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder?


Question options:


a) Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients must never drive again.


b) After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive.


c) Each state has different laws governing driving for individuals with a seizure disorder.


d) These persons may drive but never alone.


Question 28 2 / 2 points


Julie has relapsing-remitting muscular sclerosis. She has not had a good response to interferon. Which medication might help given intravenously once a month?


Question options:


a) Glatiramer acetate


b) Natalizumab


c) Fingolimod


d) Glucocorticoids


Question 29 2 / 2 points


The ‘freezing phenomenon’ is a cardinal feature of?


Question options:


a) Parkinson’s disease


b) Alzheimer’s disease


c) A CVA


d) Bell’s palsy


Question 30 2 / 2 points


A ratchet-like rhythmic contraction, especially in the hand, during passive stretching is known as?


Question options:


a) Spinothalamic dysfunction


b) Ratcheting


c) Cogwheeling


d) Hand tremors


Question 31 2 / 2 points


Clinical features of insidious onset, slow progression, and a lack of other findings to explain the symptoms are fairly diagnostic of which condition?


Question options:


a) Guillain-Barré syndrome


b) Parkinson’s disease


c) Alzheimer’s disease


d) Huntington’s disease


Question 32 1 / 1 point


Which condition is characterized by the impaired ability to learn new information along with either a cognitive disturbance in language, function, or perception?


Question options:


a) Guillain-Barré syndrome


b) Parkinson’s disease


c) Alzheimer’s disease


d) Delirium


Question 33 2 / 2 points


A score of 20 to 25 on this test indicates early-stage Alzheimer’s disease:


Question options:


a) SLUMS


b) MoCA


c) FAST


d) MMSE


Question 34 2 / 2 points


Intravenous thrombolytic therapy following an ischemic CVA should be given within how many hours of symptom onset?


Question options:


a) 1 hour


b) 3 hours


c) 6 hours


d) 12 hours


Question 35 2 / 2 points


When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of headache?


Question options:


a) Tension


b) Migraine


c) Cluster


d) Stress


Question 36 2 / 2 points


The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?


Question options:


a) Acetylcholine


b) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)


c) Dopamine


d) Serotonin


Question 37 2 / 2 points


The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:


Question options:


a) 1 month


b) 3 months


c) 6 months


d) 12 months


Question 38 1 / 1 point


A patient presents to the clinician after experiencing four episodes in the last month of sweating, palpitations, chest pain, nausea, and shaking. Each episode lasted about 10 minutes. The patient is now becoming very fearful of future events and has been reluctant to leave the house. The clinician suspects panic disorder but wants to rule out any possible medical causes. Which of the following medical conditions can mimic the symptoms of a panic attack?


Question options:


a) Pheochromocytoma


b) Hyperthyroidism


c) Cardiac arrhythmias


d) All of the above


Question 39 2 / 2 points


Which of the following is considered first-line treatment for panic disorders?


Question options:


a) Benzodiazepines


b) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)


c) Tricyclic antidepressants


d) Cognitive behavioral therapy


Question 40 1 / 1 point


Which of the following symptoms is not part of the diagnostic criteria for post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?


Question options:


a) Hypersomnolence


b) Blunted feelings


c) Loss of interest in significant activities


d) Intrusive recurrent recollections of the event


Question 41 2 / 2 points


Which of the following neuroendocrine abnormalities is implicated in depression?


Question options:


a) Decrease in adrenal size


b) Increased cortisol and corticotrophin-releasing hormone


c) An exaggerated response of thyrotropin (TRH) to infusion of thyroid-releasing hormone


d) Increased inhibitory response of glucocorticoids to dexamethasone


Question 42 2 / 2 points


The clinician has chosen to prescribe an SSRI instead of a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) for a patient fitting the diagnostic criteria for depression. Which of the following is not true concerning SSRIs in comparison to tricyclic antidepressants?


Question options:


a) SSRIs are more effective than TCAs.


b) SSRIs take less time to work than TCAs.


c) SSRIs have a more favorable side-effect profile than TCAs.


d) SSRIs are not lethal in overdose.


Question 43 2 / 2 points


After discontinuing fluoxetine, how long must a person wait before starting a monoamine oxidase inhibitor?


Question options:


a) 2 weeks


b) 3 weeks


c) 4 weeks


d) 5 weeks


Question 44 2 / 2 points


It is important to educate patients with depression and their family members about reporting signs of increasing depression and suicidal thoughts. This is especially true during which time period?


Question options:


a) Before the initiation of treatment


b) 1 to 2 weeks after the initiation of treatment


c) When switching to a different medication


d) 1 to 2 weeks after tapering off medications


Question 45 2 / 2 points


A patient is experiencing extrapyramidal side effects from his antipsychotic medications. The clinician would most likely take which of the following approaches to treating these side effects?


Question options:


a) Give the patient a “drug holiday” until the symptoms resolve and then restart the medication.


b) Switch the patient to a different antipsychotic.


c) Treat the patient with anticholinergics.


d) Treat the patient with anticonvulsants.


Question 46 1 / 1 point


According to Kübler-Ross, the stages of grief occur in which order?


Question options:


a) Anger, denial, depression, bargaining, acceptance


b) Anger, denial, bargaining, acceptance, depression


c) Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance


d) Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance


Question 47 1 / 1 point


The clinician is educating a patient about the effects of marijuana. The patient stated she has been smoking for years and believes the use does not interfere with her life. What is a significant long-term sequelae of marijuana use that the clinician should educate this patient about?


Question options:


a) Memory impairment


b) Sexual dysfunction


c) Dry mouth


d) There are no long-term consequences of marijuana use.


Question 48 2 / 2 points


Cocaine acts as a stimulant by blocking the reuptake of which neurotransmitter?


Question options:


a) GABA


b) Acetylcholine


c) Dopamine


d) Serotonin


Question 49 2 / 2 points


What blood alcohol level corresponds with the signs of stupor and confusion?


Question options:


a) 0.05


b) 0.1


c) 0.2


d) 0.3


Question 50 2 / 2 points


Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep occurs how frequently during non-REM sleep?


Question options:


a) Every 30 minutes


b) Every 60 minutes


c) Every 90 minutes


d) Every 180 minutes


Question 51 2 / 2 points


Which of the following is a laboratory finding commonly found in patients with anorexia nervosa?


Question options:


a) Hypercholesterolemia


b) Hypermagnesmia


c) Leukocytosis


d) Decreased TRH


Question 52 2 / 2 points


Which of the following is the only drug for bulimia approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration?


Question options:


a) Sertraline


b) Fluoxetine


c) Citoprolam


d) Imipramine


Question 53 2 / 2 points


Which of the following would be important to monitor in a child receiving methylphenidate for treatment of attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?


Question options:


a) Liver function


b) Vision


c) Growth parameters


d) Renal function


Question 54 2 / 2 points


It is important for the clinician to discuss the long-term effects of sexual assault with survivors. Which of the following is the most common long-term effect of sexual assault?


Question options:


a) Depression


b) Obsessive-compulsive disorder


c) Substance abuse


d) PTSD


Question 55 2 / 2 points


Women are at the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after childbirth?


Question options:


a) 2 weeks


b) 1 month


c) 3 months


d) 6 months


Question 56 2 / 2 points


Which is the most prevalent psychiatric condition in the United States?


Question options:


a) Depression


b) Anxiety


c) Substance-related addictions


d) Gambling


Question 57 1 / 1 point


What is recorded as clinical category two of the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th edition (text revision)?


Question options:


a) Clinical disorder or focus of clinical attention


b) Personality or environmental problems


c) Environmental and psychosocial stressors


d) Global assessment of functioning


Question 58 2 / 2 points


Which of the following may be used to evaluate a person’s suicide risk?


Question options:


a) CAGE


b) SANE


c) SAD PERSONAS


d) DIGFAST


Question 59 2 / 2 points


Assessing for adherence with prescribed medications and developing a plan for what to do if they are stopped is a major treatment issue for which of the following diagnostic groups?


Question options:


a) ADHD


b) Bipolar


c) Depression


d) Anxiety


Question 60 1 / 1 point


Bipolar disorder requires differential diagnosis from all of the following except?


Question options:


a) Substance abuse and medication effects


b) Medical and neurological disorders


c) Cluster B personality disorders and depression


d) Obsessive-compulsive disorder


Question 61 1 / 1 point


The use of benzodiazepines in the patient with generalized anxiety disorder and comorbid depression can exacerbate depressive symptoms.


Question options:


a) True


b) False


Question 62 1 / 1 point


Depressive episodes associated with bipolar disorder are treated the same as major depressive disorder.


Question options:


a) True


b) False


Question 63 1 / 1 point


Women in abusive relationships have a greater chance of being killed by their batterers when they leave the relationship than women who stay.


Question options:


a) True


b) False


Question 64 1 / 1 point


Adults must show childhood onset of symptoms to receive a diagnosis of ADHD.


Question options:


a) True


b) False


Question 65 1 / 1 point


Parkinson’s disease and dementing illnesses may commonly manifest depressive symptoms.


Question options:


a) True


b) False


Question 66 1 / 1 point


The best predictor of suicide risk is a history of suicide attempts.


Question options:


a) True


b) False


Question 67 1 / 1 point


A no-suicide contract can prevent a suicide attempt.


Question options:


a) True


b) False


Question 68 1 / 1 point


Depression is the most chronic disabling and economically catastrophic medical disorder of the severe mental illnesses.


Question options:


a) True


b) False


Question 69 1 / 1 point


Clozapine (Clozaril) requires laboratory monitoring at specified frequencies with results reported to a national registry.


Question options:


a) True


b) False


Question 70 1 / 1 point


When combined with certain other medications, serotonin-specific antidepressants can have significant liver P450-interaction effects.


Question options:


a) True


b) False


Question 71 1 / 1 point


A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her examination?


Question options:


a) Human papillomavirus (HPV)


b) Endometrial hyperplasia


c) Vagismus


d) Polycystic ovarian syndrome


Question 72 2 / 2 points


A 20-year-old woman is seen in the clinic because her boyfriend was found to have gonorrhea. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for gonorrhea?


Question options:


a) Ceftriaxone


b) Doxycycline


c) Acyclovir


d) Metronidazole


Question 73 1 / 1 point


A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease has she most probably been exposed to?


Question options:


a) Gonorrhea


b) HPV


c) Chlamydia


d) Trichomonas


Question 74 1 / 1 point


A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear.Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding?


Question options:


a) Trichomonas


b) Bacterial vaginosis


c) HPV


d) Herpes simplex virus


Question 75 2 / 2 points


Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas?


Question options:


a) Metronidazole


b) Ceftriaxone


c) Diflucan


d) Doxycycline


Question 76 1 / 1 point


A 36-year-old woman is seen with complaints of vaginal itching, burning, and discharge. On potassium hydroxide (KOH) wet mount of vaginal discharge, the clinician notices hyphae. Which of the following treatments would be appropriate?


Question options:


a) Fluconazole


b) Estrogen vaginal cream


c) Metronidazole


d) Doxycycline


Question 77 2 / 2 points


Mandy presents with a cauliflower-like wart in her anogenital region. You suspect it was sexually transmitted and document this as a:


Question options:


a) Filiform/digitate wart


b) Dysplastic cervical lesion


c) Condyloma acuminata


d) Koilocytosis


Question 78 0 / 2 points


During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?


Question options:


a) An enlarged rubbery gland


b) A hard irregular gland


c) A tender gland


d) A boggy gland


Question 79 2 / 2 points


Of the following types of cellulitis, which is a streptococcal infection of the superficial layers of the skin that does not involve the subcutaneous layers?


Question options:


a) Necrotizing fasciitis


b) Periorbital cellulitis


c) Erysipelas


d) “Flesh-eating” cellulitis


Question 80 2 / 2 points


The forced vital capacity is decreased in:


Question options:


a) Asthma


b) Chronic bronchitis


c) Emphysema


d) Restrictive disease


Question 81 2 / 2 points


The most common cause of CAP is?


Question options:


a) Streptococcus pneumoniae


b) Klebsiella pneumoniae


c) Legionella pneumoniae


d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa


Question 82 2 / 2 points


Which of the following is a possible consequence of sleep apnea?


Question options:


a) Asthma


b) Increased white blood cells


c) Insulin resistance


d) Hyperactivity


Question 83 2 / 2 points


The majority of HSV-1 and HSV-2 infections are asymptomatic so that only which elevated antibody titer shows evidence of previous infection?


Question options:


a) IgA


b) IgE


c) IgG


d) IgM


Question 84 2 / 2 points


A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?


Question options:


a) The scrotum will be dark.


b) The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.


c) The scrotum will appear milky white.


d) The internal structures will be clearly visible.


Question 85 0 / 2 points


During a DRE on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?


Question options:


a) An enlarged rubbery gland


b) A hard irregular gland


c) A tender gland


d) A boggy gland


Question 86 2 / 2 points


A 78-year-old man is diagnosed with C2 prostate cancer, and he asks the clinician what that means. In order to answer the patient, the clinician must have which of these understandings of the Jewett rating system?


Question options:


a) The cancer involves the seminal vesicles.


b) There is metastatic disease to regional lymph nodes.


c) The cancer is confined to the capsule.


d) There is metastasis to distant organs.


Question 87 1 / 1 point


A 58-year-old patient has been receiving leuprolide as treatment for prostate cancer. The clinician should instruct the patient about which of these side effects?


Question options:


a) Risk of osteoporosis


b) May have hot flushes


c) May have impotence


d) All of the above


Question 88 1 / 1 point


A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular self-examination (TSE).Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?


Question options:


a) Testicular cancer


b) Inguinal hernia


c) Varicocele


d) All of the above


Question 89 1 / 1 point


What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?


Question options:


a) Radical orchidectomy


b) Lumpectomy


c) Radiation implants


d) All of the above


Question 90 1 / 1 point


A patient with testicular cancer is being followed after completing treatment 1 year ago. He has been symptom-free with no evidence of disease. How often should he have a CT scan?


Question options:


a) Every month


b) Every 3 to 4 months


c) Every 6 to 12 months


d) Every year


Question 91 2 / 2 points


Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?


Question options:


a) “You must be under a lot of stress lately.”


b) “It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?”


c) “The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism.”


d) “We’ll have to do some tests.”


Question 92 2 / 2 points


Which of the following is “a linear crack extending from the epidermis to the dermis?”


Question options:


a) An ulcer


b) A fissure


c) Lichenification


d) An excoriation


Question 93 2 / 2 points


A bulla is:


Question options:


a) A vesicle larger than 1 cm in diameter


b) An elevated solid mass with a hard texture; the shape and borders can be regular or irregular


c) A superficial elevated lesion filled with purulent fluid


d) Thinning of the skin (epidermis and dermis) that appears white or translucent


Question 94 1 / 1 point


A 70-year-old female has fallen 2 weeks ago and developed immediate pain in her left wrist. She thought she just bruised it but is worried because it has not improved. She has used Tylenol® and ice at home, and that has helped slightly. You examine her and find she has moderate swelling and ecchymosis but no overtly obvious deformity. Her ROM is uncomfortable and severely diminished due to the pain. No crepitus is heard or felt. Her fingers are warm; her pulse is strong; and capillary refill is less than 2 seconds.What should you do?


Question options:


a) Make an immediate referral for an orthopedic evaluation without further assessment.


b) Tell her that it takes time for these bruises to improve, so she should be patient.


c) Obtain a wrist x-ray and place her wrist in a splint or prescribe a splint.


d) Send her to the emergency room for reduction of this obvious wrist fracture.


Question 95 1 / 1 point


Osteoarthritis is primarily a noninflammatory condition.


Question options:


a) True


b) False


Question 96 1 / 1 point


The presence of a positive rheumatoid factor is always indicative of rheumatoid arthritis.


Question options:


a) True


b) False


Question 97 2 / 2 points


Which of the following medications can cause hyperglycemia?


Question options:


a) Prednisone


b) Metformin


c) Synthroid


d) Cephalexin


Question 98 2 / 2 points


Which of the following is diagnostic for diabetes mellitus?


Question options:


a) A1C 7.0 on one occasion


b) Fasting blood sugar (FBS) of 100 mg/dL on two occasions


c) Random glucose of 200 mg/dL on two occasions


d) Two-hour post-load plasma glucose of 300 mg/dL on one occasion


Question 99 2 / 2 points


Which of the following medications for type 2 diabetes mellitus should not be prescribed during pregnancy?


Question options:


a) Insulin


b) Metformin


c) Glucotrol


d) Precose


Question 100 1 / 1 point


A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hypoglycemia.There is no history of diabetes mellitus. Which of the following should be included in the differential diagnosis?


Question options:


a) Anxiety disorder


b) Pheochromocytoma


c) Psychosis


d) All of the above









Question on the Production Function college essay help online free: college essay help online free



A countries production function is Y=5K^.5 L^.5

Assume that the rate of depreciation as well as the rate of saving are each .10. Also assume that there is no technological nor population growth.

A. What is the steady state level of capital per worker?

B. What is the steady state level of output per worker?

C. Suppose that the savings rate remains at .10 while the rate of depreciation increases to .20. What now happens to steady state level of capital per worker and output per worker?









Assignment on US Economy Analysis essay help site:edu: essay help site:edu




Using both the Household Survey and the Establishment Survey Economic Indicators of the Employment Situation:


-Analyze the state of the US economy using US Labor Market Economic Indicators above.


-Try to incorporate into your analysis issues discussed in class such as: discouraged persons, structural unemployment, part time workers for economic reasons, the skill gap, the wage gap, or unfilled job openings.


-Don’t exceed 250 words.


-Use 5 sources.










Assignment on Public Sector Leadership essay help site:edu




Find a current article on leadership in the public sector good  or bad . Write 2 pages. APA format.  Note please put url for the article  on the reference page so the teacher can click it and open the article.










Discussion Questions on Emotional Intelligence my assignment essay help london: my assignment essay help london




What is your style of dealing with troublemakers, skeptics and malcontents?


How would you characterize your beliefs about problems and obstacles?


How do you typically react when faced with adversity or potential setback?


What do you think is the most important of the four dimensions of emotional intelligence? Why?APA format 2 page










Questions on Linear Regression common app essay help




Use the dataset attached on blackboard and answer the following questions:


a) First study the simple linear regression model for the heart attack death rates, on the only basis of the number of phones. Determine whether the number of phone is associated significantly with the heart attack death rate.


b) Write the multiple linear regression model for the heart attack death rates on the basis of the number of phones and the proportion of saturated fat. Compute the associated least squares coefficient estimates.


c) Test whether at least one of the predictors number of phones, or proportion of saturated fat, is useful in predicting the heart attack death rate.


d)  Compute the R2 statistic, and the residual standard error for the models in questions (b) and (c). Would you say that adding the proportion of saturated fat to the model significantly improves the accuracy?


e)  Write the multiple linear regression model for the heart attack rates on the basis of the number of phones, the proportion of saturated fat, and the proportion of animal fat. Compute the associated least squares coefficient.


f)  A country has the following features: 108 phones per 1000 inhabitants; 33% of saturated fat for men between the ages of 55 and 59; 7% of animal fat for men between the ages of 55 and 59.


Predict the heart attack death rate for men between the ages of 55 and 59 in that country.


g)  Which coefficient estimates are significantly non-zero?


 










data.xlsx






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