According To Gary Tuerack, What Are The Qualities Of Successful People?What Are Some Examples He Gives About How Beliefs/Expectations Can Hold Us Back?
TQM’s MCQs essay help free
A productivity index of 110% means that a company’s labor costs would have been 10% higher if it had not made production improvements. Now refer to the Income Statement in Digby’s Annual Report. The direct labor costs for Digby were $32,486. These labor costs could have been $20,000 higher if investments in training that increased productivity had not been made. What was the productivity index for Digby that led to such savings?
Select: 1
155.4%
44.6%
161.6%
38.4%
Investing $1,500,000 in TQM’s Channel Support Systems initiative will at a minimum increase demand for your products 1.7% in this and in all future rounds. (Refer to the TQM Initiative worksheet in the CompXM Decisions menu.) Looking at the Round 0 Inquirer for Andrews, last year’s sales were $163,189,230. Assuming similar sales next year, the 1.7% increase in demand will provide $2,774,217 of additional revenue. With the overall contribution margin of 34.1%, after direct costs this revenue will add $946,008 to the bottom line. For simplicity, assume that the demand increase and margins will remain at last year’s levels. How long will it take to achieve payback on the initial $1,500,000 TQM investment, rounded to the nearest month?
Select: 1
6 months
13 months
TQM investment will not have a significant financial impact
19 months
Bam’s product manager is under pressure to increase market share, but is uncertain about how to make the product more competitive. The product is reasonably well-positioned in the Thrift segment and enjoys relatively high awareness and accessibility. Which of the following would most likely result in a quick increase in market share?
Select: 1
Re-position the product to the ideal spot within the segment
Lower the unit selling price to the bottom limit of the segment price range
Increase the unit contribution margin by decreasing the MTBF
Increase awareness by 5%
According to information found on the production analysis page of the Inquirer, Chester sold 1126 units of Cat in the current year. Assuming that Cat maintains a constant market share, all the units of Cat are sold in the Nano market segment and the growth rate remains constant, how many years will it be before Cat will not be able to meet future demand unless the company adds production capacity? Exclude any existing inventory.
Select: 1
3 year(s)
1 year(s)
2 year(s)
4 year(s)
Which description best fits Andrews? For clarity:
– A differentiator competes through good designs, high awareness, and easy accessibility.
– A cost leader competes on price by reducing costs and passing the savings to customers.
– A broad player competes in all parts of the market.
– A niche player competes in selected parts of the market.
Which of these four statements best describes your company’s current strategy?
Select: 1
Andrews is a niche differentiator
Andrews is a broad differentiator
Andrews is a niche cost leader
Andrews is a broad cost leader
Deal is a product of the Digby company. Digby’s sales forecast for Deal is 1853 units. Digby wants to have an extra 10% of units on hand above and beyond their forecast in case sales are better than expected. (They would risk the possibility of excess inventory carrying charges rather than risk lost profits on a stock out.) Taking current inventory into account, what will Deal’s Production After Adjustment have to be in order to have a 10% reserve of units available for sale?
Select: 1
2038 units
1793 units
1608 units
1853 units
Chester’s Elite product Cell has an awareness of 72%. Chester’s Cell product manager for the Elite segment is determined to have more awareness for Cell than Andrews’ Elite product Art. She knows that the first $1M in promotion generates 22% new awareness, the second million adds 23% more and the third million adds another 5%. She also knows one-third of Cell’s existing awareness is lost every year. Assuming that Art’s awareness stays the same next year (77%), out of the promotion budgets below, what is the minimum Chester’s Elite product manager should spend in promotion to earn more awareness than Andrews’ Art product?
Select: 1
1M
2M
Nothing
3M
Bit is a product of the Baldwin company which is primarily in the Nano segment, but is also sold in another segment. Baldwin starts to create their sales forecast by assuming all policies (R&D, Marketing, and Production) for all competitors are equal this year over last. For this question assume that all 699 of units of Bit are sold in the Nano segment. If the competitive environment remains unchanged what will be the Bit product’s demand next year (in 000’s)?
Select: 1
1594
797
699
748
In order to sell a product at a profit the product must be priced higher than the total of what it costs you to build the unit, plus period expenses, and plus overhead.
At the end of last year the broad cost leader Baldwin had an Elite product Bolt. Use the Inquirer’s Production Analysis to find Bolt’s production cost, (labor+materials). Exclude possible inventory carrying costs. Assume period expenses and overhead total 1/2 of their production cost. What is the minimum price the product could have been sold for to cover the unit cost, period expenses, and overhead?
Select: 1
$32.18
$10.73
$21.45
$35.00
Looking forward to next year, if Chester’s current cash balance is $20,201 (000) and cash flows from operations next period are unchanged from this period, and Chester takes ONLY the following actions relating to cash flows from investing and financing activities:
Issues 100 (000) shares of stock at the current stock price
Issues $400 (000) in bonds
Retires $10,000 (000) in debt
Which of the following activities will expose Chester to the most risk of needing an emergency loan?
Select: 1
Pays a $5.00 per share dividend
Liquidates the entire inventory
Purchases assets at a cost of $25,000 (000)
Sells $10,000 (000) of their long-term assets
The Task Of An Organization Is Reflected In Its admission essay help: admission essay help
1. The task of an organization is reflected in its: (Points : 4)
human resources
mission or purpose
input materials
structure
2. The beliefs and assumptions about people, work, and the organization best reflects the: (Points : 4)
formal organization
overt part of an organization
informal organization
social surface
3. The specific setting within which organizational behavior is enacted would be called the: (Points : 4)
situation
external environment
organizational context
group
4. In an open system the transformation or conversion of inputs to outputs is accomplished with: (Points : 4)
technology
task
borrowed financial resources
robots
5. If a pregnant woman claimed that a manager’s failed office romance caused him to focus more on her work, thus increasing her work demands, could result in a discrimination claim based on: (Points : 4)
gender plus
utilitarian romance
hierarchical romance
sexual harassment
6. Attention to diversity has particularly increased in recent years because of: (Points : 4)
the use of telecommunications
the opportunity for use of lower cost labor in other countries
the changing demographics of the working population
legislation
7. According to Hofstede’s research, the country displaying cultural characteristics most similar to the U.S. is: (Points : 4)
Japan
Sweden
Italy
Canada
8. In an interview situation, the interviewer’s first impression of the interviewee (or target) is likely to be based upon: (Points : 4)
nonverbal cues of the target
verbal communication by the target
the intentions of the target
the target’s physical appearance
9. Which of the following organizations has perfected software that decodes a caller’s personality using voice recognition in order to match them with an agent with a similar personality? (Points : 4)
EVR
ELoyalty
EPersonalityRecognition
EPersonalityCallCenter (EPCC)
10. The perceiver’s pattern of thinking or manner in which they assemble and interpret information about another person is: (Points : 4)
the strength of situational cues
cognitive structure
self-concept
attitude structuring
11. Counterproductive behavior that violates organizational norms and causes harms to others of the organization is known as: (Points : 4)
OCB
WDB
JDI
MSQ
12. The three major aspects of the source characteristic affecting persuasion include: (Points : 4)
expertise, credibility, charisma
credibility, charisma, attractiveness
expertise, charisma, attractiveness
expertise, trustworthiness, attractiveness
13. Low-Mach persons value: (Points : 4)
loyal and personal friendships
the “get it done anyway” mentality
manipulation of others
emotional detachment
14. According to Herzberg, which factors are related to job dissatisfaction? (Points : 4)
motivation factors
hygiene factors
lower level needs
the absence of motivation factors
15. Adam Smith formulated the “invisible hand” and the free market to explain the motivation for individual behavior. The “invisible hand” refers to: (Points : 4)
psychological determinants of behavior
unconscious motives
internal needs
unseen forces of a free market system
16. The close linkage of _____ to performance under expectancy theory is crucial for enhancing motivation. (Points : 4)
knowledge and skill
rewards
equity
satisfaction
17. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs model begins with _____ needs and ends with _____ needs. (Points : 4)
security, social
achievement, power
power, affiliation
physiological, self-actualization
18. As a supervisor, you can enhance the performance of your employees by: (Points : 4)
setting their goals
closely controlling their behavior
allowing employees to participate in goal setting
giving workers easy goals
19. The approach to stress that is based on the concept of homeostasis is known as: (Points : 4)
physiological
psychoanalytical
social psychological
psychological-cognitive
20. Which of the following persons is most closely associated with the homeostatic and medical approach to stress? (Points : 4)
Richard Lazarus
Harry Levinson
Walter B. Cannon
Robert Kahn
21. An informational cue indicating the degree to which a person behaves the same way in other situations is known as: (Points : 4)
consistency
consensus
distinctiveness
inconsistency
22. Americans generally do not like to communicate with one another within their: (Points : 4)
social distance
personal distance
intimate distance
public distance
23. Richness in a communication message refers to: (Points : 4)
the amount of data that can be sent via the type of communication medium
the amount of feeling that is communicated with the message
the amount of analyzable elements of a message
the ability of the medium to convey the meaning
24. A communication medium that is moderate in both information richness and data capacity is: (Points : 4)
the telephone
electronic mail
face-to-face discussion
formal numeric report
25. The element of the communication model that contains the thoughts and feelings the communicator is attempting to elicit in the receiver is the: (Points : 4)
data
feedback
message
information
True or False. Under U.S. law, any person who pays taxes can contribute to an IRA, and the contributions are tax-free free essay help
28. True or False. Under U.S. law, any person who pays taxes can contribute to an IRA, and the contributions are tax-free.
44. True or False. Managers, executives, and lower level employees should all go through the same type of termination process.
49. True or False. If an organization offers leave benefits beyond those required by law, it should never make a declarative statement about this in its handbook
51. Which of the following assessments does not always need to be considered depending on the international assignment?
A. Person-organization fit
B. Personality-job fit
C. Language ability
D. Suitability of immediate family
52. The ERISA Act requires all of the following except:
A. All employees who have worked for more than one year and are over 21 years of age must be offered participation in any company-sponsored retirement plans.
B. Federal vesting rules must be followed, with a maximum vesting period of 100% at five years, or 20% per year from years 3 through 7.
C. Employee retirement accounts must be portable. When the employee changes jobs, their retirement funds can be transferred to their new employer or another qualified investment.
D. Fiduciaries who manage company retirement programs must act under the prudent man concept that says they should use care and diligence when investing retirement funds.
E. All employers must provide some form of employee retirement system for employees who are over the age of 21 and who request retirement accounts.
53. Maria is conducting a job evaluation in her organization by breaking each job down into component skills or abilities. After she completes that task, she will assign points to each skill or ability based on its difficulty. Maria is using the ________ method of job evaluation.
a. job ranking
b. point-factor
c. factor comparison
d. job hierarchy
54. Giorgio intentionally inserted an Internet worm into his company’s computer systems because he received low evaluation scores this period. Giorgio is guilty of:
A. Gross negligence
B. Just cause
C. A mistake
D. Employee resistance to change
E. Serious misconduct
55. Variable pay is:
A. compensation based on the reduction of the company’s variable costs.
B. compensation that varies based on the number of hours an employee works.
C. a payment made to a supplier in multiple installments.
D. compensation awarded on the basis of individual results or performance.
E. a payment made to employees based on willingness to work overtime.
56. John is always working to improve his cultural competence because his organization competes on a global scale with facilities in many different countries and no real “headquarters” in any country. John’s organization is in the ________ stage of corporate globalization.
a. domestic
b. international
c. multinational
d. transnational
57. Signs of potential violence include all but:
A. verbal threats
B. stalking and harassment
C. alcohol and/or drug abuse
D. employee cohesion
E. intentional property damage
58. Carl was dealing with a difficult employee problem. Doubting that he can remain objective in the situation, Carl asks Andrei to help him resolve the situation. It appears Carl is using the _________ ethical approach.
a. Golden Rule
b. four-way test
c. stakeholders’ approach
d. discernment and advice
59. Katrina’s organization is hiring for low-skilled jobs in an industry where unemployment is high and it is easy to find replacement workers. Adopting a(n) ________ organizational philosophy on compensation could allow her to hire plenty of workers.
a. wage compression
b. below-the-market
c. pay for longevity
d. competency-based pay
60. Management suspects it was Ramon who tipped off a safety inspector that one of the managers had hidden chemicals from the lab in the trunk of his car until the inspection was completed. After the inspection, managers began changing Ramon’s schedule and job duties daily. Ramon found that he could not plan for his children to be cared for while he was at work because his work schedule kept changing. Eventually, Ramon quit. It is likely Ramon experienced __________ discharge.
a. wrongful
b. constructive
c. economic
d. express
61. Wynona met an old friend for lunch. During the meal, Wynona mentioned that her company needed some help on their tax reporting. Wynona’s friend said that she was now an accounting consultant and had worked with many local organizations to streamline their tax reports. Wynona gave her a copy of the tax information for the company the next day and showed her friend what the issues were. A week later, Wynona’s friend brought completed copies of the tax forms necessary for Wynona’s company to her office. It would appear that Wynona created a(n) ________ contract when she gave her friend the tax forms.
a. express
b. implied
c. quasi
d. collective
62. ESOPs motivate employees because _______________.
a. employees will get something for nothing
b. employees will act more like owners
c. employees can reduce their work schedule
d. employees can expect higher base pay
63._____ organizations tend to believe that their values and culture are superior to others and they will therefore frequently choose to staff international facilities with home-country managers.
a. Ethocentric
b. Polycentric
c. Regiocentric
d. Geocentric
64. What mechanism is used to ensure that a company investigates any disciplinary action taken fully and fairly and makes sure that the disciplinary action fits the level of the offense?
A. The coaching model
B. The seven tests for Just Cause
C. Employee assistance programs
D. The discipline model
E. The code of conduct
65. Macy’s organization provides group health insurance to its employees. According to the ________, the organization must issue a “Summary Plan Description” that describes the plan and how it works in plain language.
a. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1985
b. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996
c. Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974
d. Social Security
66. Jacob’s manager asks him to organize a blood drive for the organization. The manager tells Jacob that if he accepts the assignment, he will be awarded Employee of the Month. Jacob has organized blood drives in the past and knows how much work is involved. He does not doubt that his manager can deliver on the promise of the award. However, Jacob has always thought that the award was silly. According to expectancy theory, Jacob is unmotivated to accept the assignment because _________ is lacking.
a. valence
b. instrumentality
c. expectancy
d. significance
67. Executive compensation in the form of a deferred contribution to the executive’s retirement accounts is one of the most common forms of _________ retirement funds.
A. governed
B. qualified
C. nonqualified
D. challenged
68. When a person does something because they like it, it is interesting and personally satisfying, and they want to do it, they are receiving _______________.
A. Intrinsic rewards
B. External rewards
C. Altruistic rewards
D. Autonomous rewards
E. Extrinsic rewards
69. Alexander did not make many sales this quarter. He considered adding a few fake entries to his quarterly report. However, he decided not to do so when the boss mentioned that the new computer software is designed to catch any inconsistencies. It appears Alexander is at the _________ of moral development.
a. preconventional level
b. conventional level
c. postconventional level
d. neoconventional level
70. OSHA cited a manufacturing company for a __________ violation for exposing workers to unguarded hazardous machinery. An inspection found that the company removed the machine guarding to increase the speed of product output and knowingly permitted workers to operate the machines in this unsafe manner.
a. willful
b. serious
c. other than serious
d. de minimis
71. Melissa’s boss told her to change the numbers on a balance sheet to make things look better for an upcoming board meeting. Melissa does not want to do it, but she really needs the job. She decides to go ahead and make the change. It appears Melissa’s justification for her unethical behavior is ________.
a. Disregard or distortion of consequences
b. I did it for the good of others or the company
c. I was only following orders
d. I’m not as bad as the others
72. Kyle is exhausted from working overtime to get his projects done. His manager asked another employee to help Kyle with his work so that Kyle can work regular hours with no overtime. According to learning theory, this is __________.
a. positive reinforcement
b. negative reinforcement
c. punishment
d. avoidance reinforcement.
73. Type A personalities experience ________________________.
A. the same amount of stress as Type B personalities
B. less stress than Type B personalities
C. more stress than Type B personalities
D. immeasurable stress
74. Acme Global is closing one of its plants immediately and laying off all 200 workers. As part of the closure, Acme Global will give each employee at the plant 60 days of pay and benefits. This will help Acme Global to be in compliance with the _________.
a. Railway Labor Act of 1926
b. National Labor Relations Act of 1935
c. Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act of 1988
d. Labor Management Reporting Disclosure Act of 1959
75. Alfred has requested unpaid leave to care for his wife. She was injured while serving in the Army in Afghanistan. Alfred may be able to take this leave and return to his original job (or an equivalent one) under ________.
a. Social Security
b. the Affordable Care Act
c. the Family Medical Leave Act
d. Medicare
76. Under the idea of corporate social responsibility, companies must do the following:
A. provide employees with safe working conditions
B. provide consumers with safe products and services
C. compete fairly with competitors
D. all of the choices are correct
77. What percentage of international assignments fail mainly due to the inability to adapt to cultural differences?
A. 75%
B. 50%
C. 33%
D. 10%
78. Shannon is one of the best appliance repair people in her department. She can quickly disassemble appliances to diagnose and fix problems. However, her manager has noted that when other repair people ask her for help, she hesitates and seems unsure of herself. According to situational management, her manager should use a(n)________ management style to manage Maria’s performance problem.
a. autocratic
b. consultative
c. participative
d. empowerment
79. A mediator is a neutral third party who helps resolve a conflict ______________ to impose a solution to the conflict
A. and has jurisdiction
B. but has no authority
C. and will use consensus
D. and has some authority
80. Which of the following types of PTO is mandatory for U.S. employers?
A. Paid federal holidays
B. Paid annual leave
C. Paid sick leave
D. Paid personal leave
E. There are no mandatory PTO requirements for companies in the U.S.
81. Acme Global matches its employees’ contributions to charities. In other words, if an employee gives $100 to a non-profit agency, Acme Global gives $100 as well. It appears Acme Global is reaching the ________ level of corporate social responsibility.
a. legal
b. ethical
c. benevolent
d. social
82. Samantha’s organization keeps a large amount of raw materials in stock to guard against market fluctuations. It appears the ________ dimension of cultural diversity is high at Samantha’s organization.
a. assertiveness
b. power distance
c. in-group collectivism
d. uncertainty avoidance
83. One of the most common problems in incentive systems design is:
A. creating a set of goals instead of focusing on just one goal at a time.
B. picking an expedient goal that is easy to measure, but doesn’t aim at the company’s strategic goals.
C. designing incentive goals that are capable of being affected by the targeted employee or group of employees.
D. completely separating the incentives from base pay.
E. making the incentive goals difficult to achieve.
84. _______ contain information about the physical and chemical properties of hazardous products.
A. SDS
B. IEDI
C. PCPI
D. FMCS
E. AFUS
85. The first major provision of the FLSA concerns ____________________.
A. underage employees
B. the unskilled workforce
C. new hires
D. the federal minimum wage
86. _____ offer health, education, training, and fitness, weight and lifestyle management, and health risk assessment services to employees.
A. Employee assistance programs
B. Triple option programs
C. Employee caretaker programs
D. Health hybrid programs
E. Employee wellness programs
87. Angeline manages a group of employees who she knows have the ability to perform, but who also feel like their performance doesn’t matter much to the success of the company, and are therefore not concerned with doing a great job. Angeline may want to approach this group using a ______management style to improve their collective performance.
A. Participative
B. Results driven
C. Consultative
D. Empowering
E. Autocratic
88. What percent of employees in a bargaining unit must sign authorization cards for the NLRB to hold a union representation election?
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 30%
D. 50%
E. 51%
89. At the beginning of the quarter, Marcus sat down with his manager and set three goals for the next three months. The achievement of each goal will depend on Marcus. No one else in his work group can affect the work toward the goal. Which advantage of individual incentives does this illustrate?
a. easy to evaluate employee’s affect on team
b. ability to match rewards to employee desires
c. promotes the link between performance and results
d. may motivate less productive employees to work harder
90. __________ is the right to give orders, enforce obedience, make decisions, and commit resources, toward completing organizational goals.
A. Authority
B. Responsibility
C. Accountability
D. Ethics
91. _____________ is part of expectancy theory.
A. Goal-setting
B. Decision-making
C. Negotiation
D. Grievance
92. Since the Acme Global Corporation closed six of its plants last year, employees at the other plants have been feeling a great deal of stress. This type of stress falls into the _______ category of stress causes.
a. personality type
b. organizational culture and change
c. interpersonal relations
d. type of work
93. Executives at Acme Global are concerned that airline workers will go on strike and prevent shipments of products from reaching customers. However, the National Mediation Board is keeping airline management and labor in mediation to avoid a strike. The executives at Acme Global are relieved that the ________ limits the potential for strikes of airline workers.
a. Railway Labor Act of 1926
b. National Labor Relations Act of 1935 (Wagner Act)
c. Labor Management Relations Act of 1947 (Taft-Hartley Act)
d. Labor Management Reporting Disclosure Act of 1959
94. Employee rights under OSHA include all of the following except:
A. refusing to be interviewed by an inspector.
B. having a company representative present during any interview.
C. have working conditions free from unnecessary hazards.
D. file a complaint about hazardous working conditions.
E. reporting hazardous conditions to their supervisor.
95. Harold is paid based on a percentage of the value of the products and services he sells. He is being paid by:
A. bonus
B. base pay
C. value pay
D. commission
E. merit
96. Macy is English and works for a U.S.-based company in England. It appears the company has made a(n) ________ staffing choice.
a. ethnocentric
b. polycentric
c. geocentric
d. domestic
97. Which of the following is NOT a progressive discipline action?
A. oral warning
B. Termination
C. Informal coaching talk
D. Disciplinary suspension
E. Informal written warning
98. When Acme Global asked Tamera to relocate to the company’s newest foreign plant, it paid her a salary equal to what she was making in the United States and gave her an allowance for extra expenses. It appears Acme Global is using the _________ approach to expatriate compensation.
a. balance sheet
b. split-pay
c. negotiation
d. localization
99. A routine component of executive compensation, common “perks” include all of the following except:
A. stock options.
B. use of company cars and aircraft.
C. home security systems.
D. club memberships.
E. tax planning assistance.
100. Erin knows exactly what benefits she will receive when she retires. She has worked for the organization for 20 years and will receive 65 percent of the average of her two highest years of pay. Erin’s retirement plan is a ________ plan.
a. defined benefit
b. defined contribution
c. vesting
d. experience
HCS 499 Benchmark Assignment—Goals For Stevens District Hospital, Part 1 online essay help: online essay help
Clear, actionable, and measurable goals are essential to strategic planning. It is important that the goals are designed to support the mission and vision of an organization.
Complete the chart with a total of 260 to 350 words. Your analysis should be based on your review of the data provided in the Stevens District Hospital strategic planning scenario and your SWOT analysis.
Identify a clear, actionable, and measurable technology goal for the organization that clearly supports the mission and vision.
Analyze how this goal supports the mission and vision of the hospital.
Explain how you would measure progress toward the goal.
Discuss milestones necessary for progress.
Discuss the criteria you would use to measure that the goal was completed.
References (format using correct APA guidelines)
Cite 2 peer-reviewed, scholarly, or similar references to support your assignment.
Use correct APA in-text citation guidelines and include references above.
Week 8 Assignment 4 personal essay help: personal essay help
Read the case titled: “Risk Management on a Satellite Development Project” found in Chapter 10.
Write a six to eight (6-8) page paper in which you:
Suggest the issues that could have developed had the team not had a risk plan. Determine the major impacts of risk that the team needs to understand for the project to be successful.
Justify the value of risk plan considering the time, effort, cost, and resources it took to develop such a plan. If you were the project manager, recommend the approach that you would take to ensure the project met the critical path identified.
Assess how to determine the level of risk management appropriate for a project.
Imagine the team working on the satellite development project was a virtual team in which team members were unable to meet in person. Explain the expected impact on the project, and suggest two (2) ways the team could maintain its current goal in both planning and execution.
Use at least four (4) quality academic (peer-reviewed) resources in this assignment.
Your assignment must:
Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA or school-specific format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions.
Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
Chapter 10 start on page 268 and you have to scroll to the end of chapter for the case study.
Financial Report Analysis college admission essay help
Read this report to help answer the following questions : http://ww2.capsim.com/cgi-bin/CpCGIReports2011.exe?XM=1&studentkey=1060349&simid=C59559&Round=8&Report=CapCourier|AnnReport#production
Assume Andrews is paying a dividend of $1.38 (per share). If this dividend stayed the same, but the stock price rose by 10% what would be the dividend yield?
Select: 1
38.47%
34.63%
42.32%
2.60%
Assume Digby Corp. is downsizing the size of their workforce by 10% (to the nearest person) next year from various strategic initiatives. Digby is planning to conduct exit interviews to learn more about how they can improve in processes and increase productivity. The exit interviews are estimated to cost $100 per employee in additional to normal separation costs of $5000. How much will the company pay in separation costs if these exit interviews are implemented next year?
Select: 1
$155,190
$3,392,010
$1,396,710
$376,890
Your Competitive Intelligence team reports that a wave of product liability lawsuits is likely to cause Chester to pull the product Cure entirely off the market this year. Assume Chester scraps all capacity and inventory this round, completely writing off those assets and escrowing the proceeds to a settlement fund, and assume these lawsuits will have no effect on any other products of Chester or other companies. Without Chester’s product Cure how much can the industry currently produce in the Core segment? Consider only products primarily in the Core segment last year. Ignore current inventories. Figures in thousands (000).
Select: 1
6,619
6,889
7,867
8,335
3,927
13,238
9,313
In the month of March the Chester Corporation received and delivered orders of 201,000 units at a price of $15.00 for revenue of $3.015mil for their product Clack. Chester uses the accrual method of accounting and offers 30 day credit terms. By the end of May Chester had collected payments of $3.015mil for the March deliveries. How much of the collected $3.015mil should Chester show on the March 31st income statement and how much on the May 31st income statement?
Select: 1
$0.995mil in March;
$2.020mil in May
$1.508mil in March;
$1.508mil in May
$0 in March;
$3.015mil in May
$3.015mil in March;
$0 in May
Test 3 HRMD 610 free essay help: free essay help
Part A. –Multiple Choice.
3. Jason could not develop the phone app for the customer because he never finished the training classes. Jason is an example of which type of problem employee?
a. Lacks motivation
b. Lacks ability
c. Rule breaker
d. Has problems
4. Steven was fired from his job after three years of good performance. His boss simply said that the organization was changing and did not need Steven’s work any longer. This type of firing is likely acceptable under the doctrine of __________.
a. employment variability
b. workplace monitoring
c. employment-at-will
d. orientation period
8. Allison found several job duties that were listed on her subordinate’s job description which are no longer part of the job. Also, the company recently updated its strategic plan. Based on the new plan, Allison will add some related job duties to her subordinate’s job and communicate with her subordinate about the changes. Allison is engaged in ________.
a. performance appraisal
b. performance management
c. performance monitoring
d. performance planning
9. Top salesperson Carl noticed that the new salesperson, Brandon, was struggling to make sales. Carl told Brandon that learning sales was a process and made some suggestions for how Brandon could improve his sales techniques. Together, Carl and Brandon practiced the techniques and Brandon said he would start trying them out on clients. The two made an appointment to follow up on how the techniques were working in two weeks. Carl provided _________ to Brandon.
a. coaching
b. counseling
c. conduct training
d. discipline
12. Morgan is working on the compensation package for bank tellers. Bank customers like to see the same faces in the bank when they come in to talk about their money. Therefore, Morgan needs to find a way to reduce turnover among the tellers. Adopting a(n) _________ organizational philosophy on compensation might be a good idea.
a. below-the-market
b. at-the-market
c. pay for longevity
d. wage compression
13. If companies hire replacement workers:
a. it is illegal during any strike action.
b. during an economic strike, the company doesn’t have to lay off replacement workers to give the strikers their jobs back.
c. it’s OK any time, but the striking worker always has to be given their job back after the strike.
d. during an unfair labor practices strike, the company doesn’t have to lay off replacement workers to give the strikers their jobs back
e. during any strike, all employees can be permanently replaced.
16. At the beginning of the quarter, Marcus sat down with his manager and set three goals for the next three months. The achievement of each goal will depend on Marcus. No one else in his work group can affect the work toward the goal. Which advantage of individual incentives does this illustrate?
a. easy to evaluate employee’s effect on team
b. ability to match rewards to employee desires
c. promotes the link between performance and results
d. may motivate less productive employees to work harder
17. Mallory would like to attract better workers and enhance her organization’s employment brand. Adopting a(n) ________ organizational philosophy on compensation could help her achieve her goals.
a. at-the-market
b. above-the-market
c. pay for longevity
d. pay secrecy
18. One reason for re-evaluating social security is because
a. there have been changes in the lifespan of the retiree population.
b. congress did not intend the law to cover both men and women since men were primarily the wage earners when the law first passed in 1935.
c. the law was written to have a re-evaluation in the new millennium.
d. the global economy affected the value of the retirement dollar.
20. Under OSHA employees have a right to all of the following except:
A. to refuse to be interviewed by an inspector.
B. to have a company representative present during any interview.
C. to have working conditions free from unnecessary hazards.
D. to file a complaint about hazardous working conditions.
E. to report hazardous conditions to their supervisor.
Part B. – Short Answer. Each question is worth 5 points. Please do not exceed the sentence maximum response limits.
1. You are writing an employee handbook for a manufacturing company with 50 employees. The company says it does not need any SDS forms or policies. What do you say? 6 sentence maximum response.
2. Discuss two differences between an HMO and a PPO? 6 sentence maximum response.
3. Name two common problems with performance evaluations and provide one potential solution to each problem you identified? 6 sentence maximum response.
4. Explain why an employer can limit an employee’s speech in the workplace. 5 sentence maximum response.
5. What is the difference between a lockout and a strike? 5 sentence maximum response.
6. You lost your job. Why would COBRA help you? 4 sentence maximum response.
Part C – Paragraph Short Answer. This section is worth 30% of the test grade. This section must be cited by APA style
Amazon.com, originally started as the biggest online bookstore, has become a household name by expanding rapidly in the retail market offering millions of movies, games, and music, electronics and other general merchandise categories, including apparel and accessories, auto parts, home furnishings, health and beauty aids, toys, and groceries. Shoppers can also download e-books, games, MP3s, and films to their computers or handheld devices, including Amazon’s own portable e-reader, the Kindle. Amazon also offers products and services, such as self-publishing, online advertising, e-commerce platform, hosting, and a co-branded credit card.
To keep this megastore running at a fast pace, Amazon hired 115,000 employees who generated $74 billion in 2013. Target and Home Depot made a combined income of close to $74 billion in the same year yet employed more than 340,000 people between them in their retail stores. Why does it take only one third of its competitors’ labor force to produce same the revenue? Like the other mega retailer Wal-Mart, Amazon has delivered creative business solutions to their own processes in order to continuously increase their operating effectiveness. However, their strategy focuses on enhancing the customer shopping experience and providing excellent customer service rather than providing the lowest priced products. In order to meet their customers’ needs, Amazon must deliver more speed and efficiency in its giant warehouse. They use more automated work-processes which reduce the company’s operational costs, as well increase labor efficiency and employee safety.
Quality of their warehouse labor has become the critical issue in the firm’s success and hence hiring and retaining the best, most suitable candidates for their manual labor positions is a key success factor. That being said, Amazon’s turnover rate at these lowest ranked positions in the organization is high since Amazon lets go of its lowest-performing employees to make room for new, more appropriate candidates while promoting the very best. To detect the lowest and top performing employees, Amazon initiated a performance evaluation system called the Organization and Leadership Review (OLR).
OLR actually has two main goals: first, is to find the future leaders and prepare them to be able to face the most challenging tasks presented in a fast paced work environment; and second, to determine the 10% of the employees who are the least effective and take necessary corrective action. OLRs take place twice a year to grant promotions and find the least effective employees. Only the top-level managers attend this meeting where there could be two reasons why an employee’s name may be mentioned in them. Either the employee is being considered for a promotion the employee has asked for or the employee’s job at Amazon might be at stake.
OLRs start with the attendees reading the agenda of the meeting. Then supervisors suggest the most deserving subordinate’s name to be considered for the promotion. All executives in the room evaluate these suggestions which are then followed by a debate. Promotions are given at the end. During the process, instead of using hard data, executives tend to bring personal experiences by using anecdotes to evaluate the employees’ performance. Anyone in the meeting may deny a promotion therefore ambitious employees seeking a promotion should also be very friendly with their boss’ peers as well. If an employee’s supervisor cannot present him or her well enough, another’s favorite subordinate will get the promotion.
In terms of promotion, Amazon CEO Jeff Bezos expects the managers to set the performance bar quite high in order to allow only the most exceptional talent to progress. Promotions are protected by well-written promotion guidelines which focus on delivery, and impact, not on internal politics. People spend less time campaigning for their own promotions and top performers are heavily compensated based upon the quality of their work. Therefore only a few promotions are available each year and receiving positive feedback from an employee’s supervisor is quite rare. The approval the employee gets from his or her supervisor is not enough from the OLR to get a promotion; he/she will still have to ‘fight’ for the promotion and even if granted the promotion may not occur immediately.
1. How might rater bias, stereotyping and traits appraisal impact the accuracy of OLR? Could this be corrected? If so, how?
2. Given the differing appraisal systems described in this chapter, which appraisal systems mostly closely resembles OLR? Specifically discuss your response.
3. Discuss at least one advantage and one disadvantages of having performance reviews like OLR, versus MBO, that are single way communication?
Health Insurance Matriz law essay help
Health Insurance Matrix
HCS/235 Version 7
1
Health Insurance Matrix
As you learn about health care delivery in the United States, it is necessary to understand the various models of health insurance to develop important foundational knowledge as you progress through the course and for your role as a future health care worker. The following matrix is designed to help you develop that knowledge and assist you in understanding how health care is financed and how health insurance influences patients and providers. Fill in the following matrix. Each box must contain responses between 50 and 100 words and use complete sentences.
Model
Describe the model
How is the care paid or financed when this model is used?
What is the structure behind this model? Is it a gatekeeper, open-access, or combination of both?
What are the benefits for providers in using this model?
What are the challenges for providers in using this model?
Health Maintenance Organization (HMO)
. A type of health insurance plan that usually limits coverage to care from doctors who work for or contract with the HMO. It generally won’t cover out-of-network care except in an emergency. An HMO may require you to live or work in its service area to be eligible for coverage. HMOs often provide integrated care and focus on prevention and wellness.
Health maintenance organizations represent “pre-paid” or “capitated” insurance plans in which individuals or their employers pay a fixed monthly fee for services instead of a separate charge for each visit or service. The monthly fees remain the same, regardless of types or levels of services provided. Services are provided by physicians who are employed by, or under contract with, the HMO.
You’ll select a Primary Care Physician who will be the first point of contact for your healthcare. You are encouraged to build a strong relationship with your PCP because they will connect you to specialists or other health care providers. Your PCP will be able to see the total picture of your overall health.
With an HMO plan, your out-of-pocket medical costs and monthly premiums will generally be lower than with other types of plans. If you are someone who doesn’t see a lot of specialists or would like having your care coordinated through a PCP, then you might save more money with an HMO plan.
Tight controls can make it more difficult to get specialized care
As an HMO member, you must choose a primary care physician (PCP). Your PCP provides your general medical care and must be consulted before you seek care from another physician or specialist. This screening process helps to reduce costs both for the HMO and for HMO members, but it can also lead to complications if your PCP doesn’t provide the referral you need
Preferred Provider Model
. A Medicare PPO Plan is a type of Medicare Advantage Plan (Part C) offered by a private insurance company. In a PPO Plan, you pay less if you use doctors, hospitals, and other health care providers that belong to the plan’s network . You pay more if you use doctors, hospitals, and providers outside of the network
Rather than prepaying for medical care, PPO members pay for services as they are rendered. The PPO sponsor (employer or insurance company) generally reimburses the member for the cost of the treatment, less any co-payment percentage. In some cases, the physician may submit the bill directly to the insurance company for payment. The insurer then pays the covered amount directly to the healthcare provider, and the member pays his or her co-payment amount. The price for each type of service is negotiated in advance by the healthcare providers and the PPO sponsor(s).
Free choice of healthcare provider
PPO members are not required to seek care from PPO physicians. However, there is generally strong financial incentive to do so. For example, members may receive 90% reimbursement for care obtained from network physicians but only 60% for non-network treatment. In order to avoid paying an additional 30% out of their own pockets, most PPO members choose to receive their healthcare within the PPO network.
Out-of-pocket costs generally limited
Healthcare costs paid out of your own pocket (e.g., deductibles and co-payments) are limited. Typically, out-of-pocket costs for network care are limited to $1,200 for individuals and $2,100 for families. Out-of-pocket costs for non-network treatment are typically capped at $2,000 for individuals and $3,500 for families. And they have a free choice of healthcare provider.
More paperwork and expenses than HMOs
As a PPO member, you may have to fill out paperwork in order to be reimbursed for your medical treatment. Additionally, most PPOs have larger co-payment amounts than HMOs, and you may be required to meet a deductible. Less coverage for treatment provided by non-PPO physicians
As mentioned previously, there is a strong financial incentive to use PPO network physicians.
Point-of-Service Model
A Point of Service (POS) plan is a type of managed healthcare system that combines characteristics of the HMO and the PPO. Like an HMO, you pay no deductible and usually only a minimal co-payment when you use a healthcare provider within your network. You also must choose a primary care physician who is responsible for all referrals within the POS network. If you choose to go outside the network for healthcare, POS coverage functions more like a PPO.
No “gatekeeper” for non-network care
If you choose to go outside the POS network for treatment, you are free to see any doctor or specialist you choose without first consulting your primary care physician (PCP). Of course, you will pay substantially more out-of-pocket charges for non-network care.
POS coverage allows you to maximize your freedom of choice. Like a PPO, you can mix the types of care you receive. There is no minimal co-payment. Also when you choose to use network providers, there is generally no deductible. As well as no healthcare cost paid out of your own pocket
Substantial co-payment for non-network care
As in a PPO, there is generally strong financial incentive to use POS network physicians. For example, your co-payment may be only $10 for care obtained from network physicians, but you could be responsible for up to 40% of the cost of treatment provided by non-network doctors. Thus, if your longtime family doctor is outside of the POS network, you may choose to continue seeing her, but it will cost you more.
Provider Sponsored Organization
A Provider-Sponsored Organization (PSO) is a type of managed care plan that is operated by a group of doctors and hospitals that form a network of providers within which you must stay to receive coverage for your care. People with Medicare can choose to get their Medicare benefits through a PSO.
PSO receives a fixed monthly payment to provide care for Medicare beneficiaries. PSOs may be developed as for-profit or not-for-profit entities of which at least 51 percent must be owned and governed by health care providers (physicians, hospitals or allied health professionals). PSOs may be organized as either public or private entities
The gatekeeper would be Medicare in the United States can be defined as ‘ A group of doctors, hospitals, and other health care providers that agree to give health care to Medicare beneficiaries for a set amount of money from Medicare every month. This type of managed care plan is run by the doctors and providers themselves, and not by an insurance company
High Deductible Health Plans and Savings Options
A health savings account (HSA) is a tax-advantaged medical savings account available to taxpayers in the United States who are enrolled in a high-deductible health plan (HDHP). The funds contributed to an account are not subject to federal income tax at the time of deposit.
You have the freedom to see any health care provider, including specialists, without a referral, although you will save money if you see in-network providers. This is especially important since instead of a copay, you will be paying the full cost of a doctor’s visit or service until you satisfy your deductible
Others can contribute to your HSA. Contributions can come from various sources, including you, your employer, a relative and anyone else who wants to add to your HSA. High deductible plans also allow you to meet health plan stipulations that your community may have. By having yourself and your family covered with health insurance, you can be in compliance with specific laws that require insurance coverage.
You have high deductible requirement. Even though you are paying less in premiums each month, it can be difficult – even with money in an HSA – to come up with the cash to meet a high deductible.
You have unexpected healthcare costs. Your healthcare costs could exceed what you had planned for, and you may not have enough money saved in your HSA to cover expenses.
Cite your sources below. For additional information on how to properly cite your sources check out the Reference and Citation Generator resource in the Center for Writing Excellence.
References
Case Write-Up easy essay help
In your write-up, please write a minimum of two pages (double-spaced, 12 point, Times New Roman is acceptable) answering the questions listed below.
How did the marketing campaign for The Hunger Games: Catching Fire mark a departure from a traditional marketing campaign for a movie? What was innovative about the marketing approach adopted by Lionsgate?
A good transmedia storytelling campaign should be persistent, pervasive, participatory, and personalized. Critically evaluate the campaign based on these elements.
Discuss why Lionsgate focused on engaging existing fans rather than attracting new customers to the movie. Do you agree with the decision to not focus on other segments like older customers or male customers?
Carefully review all the creative and media tactics used in the campaign. What did Lionsgate do well and what could have been done better?
You will be graded on the depth of your analysis. Use relevant points from the case to justify your responses. If you recognize multiple points (e.g., there may be several ways that the campaign departed from traditional campaigns) so be sure to include them all. Use this case write-up to show that you are able to draw out relevant information from the case, and use them to argue your point. As outlined in the syllabus a portion of your case grade will also be based on your involvement in the class discussion.
Chester Company admission essay help: admission essay help
1) The Chester Company has just purchased $40,900,000 of plant and equipment that has an estimated useful life of 15 years. The expected salvage value at the end of 15 years is $4,090,000. What will the book value of this purchase (exclude all other plant and equipment) be after its third year of use? (Use FASB GAAP)
Select: 1
[removed]
$33,538,000
[removed]
$35,446,667
[removed]
$29,448,000
[removed]
$32,720,000
2) What is the Quick Ratio of Chester?
Select: 1
[removed]
1.39
[removed]
1.61
[removed]
.62
[removed]
.72
3) Digby has a ROS of 0.09 (ROS = Net income/Sales). That means:
Select: 1
[removed]
There are sales of $9 for every dollar of profit.
[removed]
There is a 9% profit on each dollar of sales.
[removed]
There are sales of $91 for every dollar of profit.
[removed]
For every $9 of sales there is a profit of 1%.
4) Midyear on July 31st, the Baldwin Corporation’s balance sheet reported:
Total Liabilities of $103.453 million
Cash of $8.040 million
Total Assets of $172.520 million
Total Common Stock of $5.080 million.
What were the Baldwin Corporation’s retained earnings?
Select: 1
[removed]
$74.147 million
[removed]
$63.987 million
[removed]
$72.027 million
[removed]
$82.187 million
5) Review the Inquirer to determine Baldwin’s current strategy. How will they seek a competitive advantage? From the following list, select the top five sources of competitive advantage that Baldwin would be most likely to pursue.
Select: 5
[removed]
Seek high plant utilization, even if it risks occasional small stockouts
[removed]
Increase demand through TQM initiatives
[removed]
Add additional products
[removed]
Seek high automation levels
[removed]
Offer attractive credit terms
[removed]
Seek the lowest price in their target market while maintaining a competitive contribution margin
[removed]
Reduce cost of goods through TQM initiatives
[removed]
Seek excellent product designs, high awareness, and high accessibility
[removed]
Accept lower plant utilization and higher capacities to insure sufficient capacity is available to meet demand
[removed]
Reduce labor costs through training and recruitment
6) Rank the following companies from high to low cumulative profit, (in descending order, 1=highest, 4=lowest).
Rank in order from 1 to 4
[removed]
Chester
[removed]
Baldwin
[removed]
Andrews
[removed]
Digby
7) Which description best fits Chester in your industry? For clarity:
– A differentiator competes through good designs, high awareness, and easy accessibility.
– A cost leader competes on price by reducing costs and passing the savings to customers.
– A broad player competes in all parts of the market.
– A niche player competes in selected parts of the market.
Which of these four statements best describes this competitor?
Select: 1
[removed]
Chester is a niche cost leader
[removed]
Chester is a broad differentiator
[removed]
Chester is a broad cost leader
[removed]
Chester is a niche differentiator
8) If Baldwin issued 1000 shares of common stock at last year’s end price, the effect on the balance sheet would be:
Select: 1
[removed]
Retained earnings would increase by $4,804
[removed]
Retained earnings would increase by $48,039
[removed]
Equity would decrease by $4,804
[removed]
Equity would increase by $48,039
Case Application 2 Shifting Direction essay help tips
8-18. What role do you think goals would play in planning the change in direction for the company? List some goals you think might be important.
8-19. What types of plans would be needed in an industry such as this one? Explain why you think plans would be important.
8-20. What contingency factors might affect the planning Garmin executives have to do? How might those contingency factors affect planning?
8-21. What planning challenges do you think Garmin executives face with continuing to be the global leader? How should the cope with those challenges?
CHAPTER 14 DISCUSSION QUESTIONS AND PROBLEMS get essay help: get essay help
CHAPTER 14
DISCUSSION QUESTIONS AND PROBLEMS
Discussion Questions
1. Discuss the formation of a partnership. Is any gain or loss recognized? Explain?
2. What entity forms are considered partnerships for federal income tax purposes?
3. How does taxation for the corporate form and the partnership form differ?
4. What is the concept of basis? In your discussion, differentiate between outside basis and inside basis.
5. Elaborate on the term basis-in – basis-out. What does that phrase mean in the context of a partnership formation?
6. How can two partners, each with a 50% interest in a partnership, have different amounts of outside basis at the formation of a partnership? Shouldn’t the two partners contribute the same amount to have the same interest?
7. When a partnership receives an asset from a partner, does the partnership ever recognize a gain? What is the basis of the asset in the hands of the partnership after contribution?
8. Discuss the concept of steps into the shoes. Does how this concept pertains to the partnership, the partners, or both?
9. Why would smaller partnerships (and other businesses for that matter) use only the tax basis of accounting, which does not follow GAAP?
10. How is depreciation calculated by the partnership when a partner contributes a business asset?
11. Discuss the concepts of ordinary income and separately stated items concerning partnerships. When must a partnership item of income or loss be separately stated and why?
12. Can a partner have a salary from a partnership? Why? What is a guaranteed payment?
13. Are guaranteed payments treated as an ordinary income items or as separately stated items?
14. Is the Section 179 expense deduction allowed for partnerships? If so, is Section 179 an ordinary income item or a separately stated item? Why?
15. If a partner owns a 20% interest, does that necessarily mean that he or she will receive 20% of the net income from the partnership? Explain?
16. Is partnership income considered self-employment income? If so, how is it calculated?
17. Why must some income and gain items be separately stated in a partnership?
18. Explain why nontaxable income and nondeductible expenses increase or reduce outside basis?
19. When is it mandatory that a partner calculate his or her partner interest basis (outside basis)? What items affect the outside basis of a partner?
20. How does a partner’s share of partnership liabilities affect his or hers outside basis?
21. The general rule is that partners do not recognize any gain when he or she receives a distribution. In what circumstances might a partner recognize a gain on a current distribution?
22. Define precontribution gain? What causes a partner to recognize it?
23. Describe the rules concerning the basis of property distributed to a partner. How does the concept of “basis-in, basis-out” apply to partnership distributions?
24. How can a partnership interest be disposed of? Which disposal method is more likely to produce a gain or loss? How is the gain or loss calculated?
25. How is the outside basis of a partner allocated to assets in a liquidation of the partnership interest? Include in your answer the effects of distributing cash, ordinary assets, §1231 assets, and capital assets.
Multiple Choice
26. Carmin performs services in exchange for a 25% interest in Real Estate Rental Partnership. The services were worth $15,000. The tax implications to Carmin are:
a. No taxable income and a partnership interest with a basis of $0.
b. No taxable income and a partnership interest with a basis of $15,000.
c. $15,000 of taxable income and a partnership interest with a basis of $0.
d. $15,000 of taxable income and a partnership interest with a basis of $15,000.
27. Billy contributes land with an FMV of $7,000 and a basis of $3,000 to a partnership in return for a 5% partnership interest in ABCD partnership. Billy’s basis in the partnership is:
a. $0.
b. $3,000.
c. $7,000.
d. Cannot be determined.
28. Billy contributes land with a FMV of $7,000 and a basis of $3,000 to a partnership in return for a 5% partnership interest in ABCD partnership. ABCD’s basis in the land is:
a. $0.
b. $3,000.
c. $7,000.
d. Cannot be determined.
29. Jake has a Schedule C with the following assets:
Basis FMV
Cash $4,500 $4,500
A/R 0 10,000
Building 95,000 155,000
Jake contributes these assets to form AJ’s Partnership and receives a 50% interest. His basis in the partnership interest is:
a. $ 0.
b. $ 99,500.
c. $159,500.
d. $169,500.
30. Jake has a Schedule C with the following assets:
Basis FMV
Cash $4,500 $4,500
A/R 0 10,000
Building 95,000 155,000
Jake contributes these assets to form AJ’s Partnership and receive a 50% interest. AJ’s basis in the assets is:
a. Cash $4,500; A/R $0; building $155,000.
b. Cash $4,500; A/R $10,000; building $155,000.
c. Cash $4,500; A/R $0; building $95,000.
d. Cash $4,500; A/R $10,000; building $95,000.
31. Allie contributed the following business assets to ASW Partnership on August 1, 2006:
Basis FMV Date Purchased by Allie
Building $175,000 $300,000 07/01/93
Inventory $ 50,000 $ 100,000 05/08/03
What is the holding period for the building and the inventory to ASW Partnership?
a. Building – long-term capital or Section 1231 asset.
b. Building – short-term ordinary asset.
c. Inventory – short-term ordinary asset.
d. Both a. and c.
32. Allie contributed the following business assets to ASW Partnership on August 1, 2006:
Basis FMV Date Purchased by Allie
Building $175,000 $300,000 07/01/93
Inventory $ 50,000 $100,000 05/08/03
What is the basis in the inventory and the building to ASW?
a. Building $0; Inventory $ 0.
b. Building $175,000; Inventory $ 50,000.
c. Building $175,000; Inventory $100,000.
d. Building $300,000; Inventory $100,000.
33. All of the following are considered ordinary items to a partnership except:
a. Gross Profit.
b. Salary and Wages.
c. Taxes and Licenses.
d. Capital Gains and Losses.
34. Styron is a partner in Styron, Lee, & Jane partnership. Styron owned 25% from January 1, 2006 to June 30, 2006, when he bought Lee’s 25% interest. He owed 50% for the rest of the year. The partnership had ordinary income of $88,000 and $12,000 in long-term capital gains. Barring any special allocations in a partnership agreement, Styron’s share of ordinary income for the year is:
a. $ 11,000.
b. $ 33,000.
c. $ 88,000.
d. $100,000.
35. All of the following are considered separately stated items to a partnership except:
a. Charitable contributions.
b. Section 179 expense.
c. Depreciation..
d. Capital gains and losses.
36. All of the below items from a partnership go into the calculation of a partners self-employment income except:
a. Share of ordinary income.
b. Dividend income.
c. Guaranteed payment.
d. Section 179 expense.
37. A partner’s share of income and separately stated items is reported to the partner via what form:
a. Form 1065.
b. Form 1040 – Schedule SE.
c. Form 1065, Schedule K-1.
d. Form 1065, Schedule D.
38. Retish is a 10% partner in a partnership. The partnership pays Retish a guaranteed payment of $45,000 per year. If the partnership’s ordinary income is $38,000 before considering the guaranteed payment, the partnership will report ordinary income of how much?
a. $ ($7,000).
b. $ 0.
c. $ 33,500.
d. $ 38,000.
39. The calculation of a partner’s basis in his partnership interest is mandatory in which of the following situations:
a. In a partnership loss year.
b. At the liquidation or disposition of a partner’s interest.
c. When the partner receives nonliquidating distributions.
d. All of the above.
40. Julianna and Dennis are equal partners in a partnership. When forming the partnership, Dennis contributed a building with an FMV of $250,000 and a basis of $150,000. During the first year of operations, the partnership earned $70,000 in ordinary income and tax-exempt interest of $1,200. Assuming no special allocations, Dennis’s basis in the partnership interest at the end of the year is:
a. $ 0.
b. $150,000.
c. $185,600.
d. $221,200.
41. All of the following items affect the basis of a partnership interest except:
a. Cash or property contributed.
b. Guaranteed payments.
c. Partnership income or loss items.
d. A partner’s share of recourse liabilities.
42. Partner Beth has a basis of $10,000 in a partnership at the beginning of the year. She receives $6,000 in cash distributions, her distributive share of income is $5,000, and she receives a land distribution with a basis of $8,000 (FMV $20,000). What is Beth’s partnership interest basis at the end of the year?
a. $ 0.
b. $ 1,000.
c. $ 9,000.
d. $10,000.
43. Molly, a 30% partner in XYZ partnership, has a basis of $55,000 in her partnership interest. Molly receives a cash distribution of $54,000 at year-end. The distribution has what tax effect on Molly:
a. No gain or loss is recognized and she has a $55,000 basis in her partnership interest.
b. No gain or loss is recognized and she has a $1,000 basis in her partnership interest.
c. She has a recognized gain of $37,500 and a basis of $0 in her partnership interest.
d. She has a recognized gain of $55,000 and a basis of $0 in her partnership interest.
44. A partner recognizes a gain on a current distribution in which of the following situations?
a. When a partner receives a property distribution with a basis in excess of her or his basis.
b. When money or marketable securities are distributed in excess of the partner’s basis.
c. When the current distribution triggers a precontribution gain.
d.. Both b. and c.
45. Wendy contributes land to a partnership with a basis of $24,000 and an FMV of $36,000 in 2004. In 2006, when the FMV of the land is $38,000, the partnership distributes the land to Calvin, another partner. Which of the following is true?
a. Wendy recognizes no gain or loss.
b. Calvin recognizes a gain of $14,000.
c. Wendy recognizes a gain of $12,000.
d. Calvin has a basis of $38,000 in the land.
46. All of the following statements are correct concerning liquidating distributions of a partnership except:
a. A loss can never be recognized.
b. A distribution of money in excess of basis causes a gain to be recognized..
c. Basis in a property distribution is allocated essentially the same as a nonliquidating distribution.
d. Generally, no gain or loss is recognized when the liquidating distribution consists only of property.
47. On November 1, Ashton sells her interest in XYZ partnership to Wayne for $200,000 cash and a release of liability of $30,000. Ashton’s basis at the beginning of the year was $125,000 (including the $30,000 of liability). Ashton’s share of income through November 1 was $45,000 and she received a $15,000 cash distribution earlier in the year. What are the tax consequences to Ashton on the sale of her partnership interest?
a. $ 0 tax effects.
b. $ 45,000 capital gain
c. $ 75,000 capital gain
d. $105,000 capital gain
Problems
48. Denise contributes the following assets to a partnership in exchange for a 25% partnership interest:
FMV Basis
Cash $ 20,000 $ 20,000
Office equipment $ 12,000 $ 5,000
Auto $ 20,000 $ 6,000
What is Denise’s beginning basis in her partnership interest?
49. On June 1 of the current year, Patti contributes equipment with a $45,000 basis and a $35,000 FMV in exchange for a partnership interest. She purchased the equipment three years ago.
a. What is Patti’s basis in her partnership basis?
b. What is the Patti’s holding period of the partnership interest?
c. What is the basis of the equipment in the hands of the partnership?
d. What is the holding period of the equipment in the hands of the partnership?
e. How will the partnership depreciate the equipment in the year of contribution?
50. Dennis, Suzy, and Katherine form a partnership. Dennis and Suzy give equipment and a building, respectively. Katherine agrees to perform all of the accounting and office work in exchange for a 10% interest.
FMV Basis Partnership %
Dennis’s equipment $100,000 $ 10,000 45%
Suzy’s building $100,000 $ 45,000 45%
Katherine’s services $ 0 $ 0 10%
a. Do any of the partners recognize any gain? If so, how much and why?
b. What is the basis for each partner in his or her partnership interest?
c. What is the basis to the partnership of each asset?
51. Moe, Johnny, and Raymond form a partnership and contribute the following assets.
FMV Basis Partnership %
Moe’s inventory $ 50,000 $ 10,000 33.3%
Johnny’s building $110,000 $ 80,000 33.3%
Raymond’s cash $ 50,000 $ 50,000 33.3%
Johnny’s building has a mortgage of $60,000 which the partnership assumes.
a. Do any of the partners recognize any gain? If so, how much and why?
b. What is the basis for each partner in their partnership interest?
c. What is the basis to the partnership in each asset?
d. How would your answer change with respect to Johnny if the basis in the building was $45,000?
52. Barry and Kurt are equal partners in the BK partnership. Barry receives a guarantee payment of $55,000. In addition to the guaranteed payment, Barry withdraws $10,000 from the partnership. The partnership has $24,000 in ordinary income during the year.
a. How much income must Barry report from BK partnership?
b. What is the effect on Barry’s partnership basis?
53. Kerry is a partner in the Kerry, Davis, Smith & Jones partnership. Kerry owned 25% from January 1, 2006 to June 30, 2006 when he bought Jones’s 25% interest. He owed 50% for the rest of the year. The partnership had ordinary income of $146,000 and $15,000 in long-term capital gains. Barring any special allocations in a partnership agreement, what is Kerry’s share of income?
54. Wade has a beginning basis in a partnership of $23,000. His share of income and expense from the partnership consist of the following amounts:
Ordinary income $43,000
Guaranteed payment $12,000
Long-term capital gain $15,500
§1231 gain $ 4,300
Charitable contributions $ 2,000
§179 expense $18,000
Cash distribution $ 6,000
a. What is Wade’s self-employment income?
b. Calculate Wade’s basis at the end of the year?
55. Bryan and Gayle are equal partners in BG Partnership. The partnership reports the following items of income and expense:
Ordinary income from operations $13,000
Interest income $ 5,000
Long-term capital gains $23,000
Section 179 expense $55,000
Charitable contributions $ 3,000
a. Which of these items are considered separately stated items? How will these items be reported to the partners? What form?
b. Where will these amounts be reported by the partners?
56. Kim has a basis in her partnership interest of $12,000 and receives a distribution from the partnership of $6,000 cash and equipment with a basis $8,000 ($12,000 FMV).
a. How much gain or loss must Kim recognize on the distribution?
b. What is Kim’s ending partnership basis?
c. What is Kim’s basis in the equipment?
57. Zach contributes land with a FMV of $25,000 and a basis of $14,000 to a partnership on April 5, 2004. On June 6, 2006, the partnership distributed the land to Art a partner in the same partnership. At the distribution, the land had a FMV of $29,000.
a. What is the effect of the distribution on Zach, if any?
b. What is the effect of the distribution to Art?
58. Roberto has a basis of $6,000 in a partnership at the beginning of the year. He receives $7,000 in cash distributions, his distributive share of income is $3,500, and he receives a land distribution with a basis of $6,000 (FMV $12,000).
a. Is Roberto required to recognize any gain? If so, how much is the gain?
b. What is Roberto’s basis in the land?
c. What is Roberto’s ending basis in his partnership interest?
59. Rhonda has a basis of $8,000 in a partnership at the beginning of the year. She receives $12,000 in cash distributions and her distributive share of income is $2,500.
a. Is Rhonda required to recognize any gain? If so, how much?
b. What is Roberto’s ending basis in his partnership interest?
60. Rebecca has $40,000 basis in her partnership interest when she receives liquidating distributions from the partnership. She receives cash of $24,000 and equipment with a $12,000 basis to the partnership. What are the tax consequences of the liquidating distributions to Rebecca?
61. Calvin purchased a 40% partnership interest for $43,000 in February 2004. His share of partnership income was $22,000 in 2004, $25,000 in 2005, and $12,000 in 2006. He made no additional contributions to or withdrawals from the partnership. On December 18, 2006, Calvin sold his partnership interest for $103,000. What is his gain or loss on the sale of his partnership interest?
Tax Return Problem #1
Paul and Wayne equally own the PW Partnership. Paul’s basis was $30,000 and Wayne’s basis was $22,000 at the beginning of the year. PW Partnership had the following income and expense items:
Sales $330,000
Cost of goods sold 220,000
Guaranteed payment to Paul 40,000
Rent expense 24,000
Depreciation 33,000
Interest expense 4,000
Tax-exempt income 3.000
Health insurance premiums for Paul 3,600
Health insurance premiums for Wayne 3.600
a. Prepare page 1 and page 3 of form 1065 – ordinary income and separately stated items for the partnership.
b. Calculate Paul’s basis in his partnership interest.
c. Calculate Wayne’s basis in his partnership interest.
Tax Return Problem #2
Phil Williams and Liz Johnson are 60% and 40% partners, respectively, in Williams & Johnson Partnership. Their beginning basis is $33,000 for Phil and $31,000 for Liz. The partnership had the following activity during the year.
Income $336,123
Interest income 1,259
Dividend income (qualified) 4,586
Long-term capital gains 13,458
Total Revenue $355,426
Expenses:
Salaries and wages (non-partners) $ 47,000
Guaranteed payments
Williams 75,000
Johnson 50,000
Depreciation (MACRS – includes $9,000
§179 Expense) 41,888
Interest expense 5,220
Taxes and licenses 15,548
Meals and entertainment (100%) 15,257
Auto 5,254
Insurance (non-partner health) 6,000
Accounting and legal 2,800
Repairs 1,200
Charitable contributions 2,500
Payroll penalties 500
Total Expenses $268,167
Net Income $ 87,259
a. Calculate the ordinary income for the partnership and prepare page 1 of Form 1065.
b. Prepare page 3 of Form 1065?
c. What is the ending basis for Phil Williams?
d. What is the ending basis for Liz Johnson?
Which of the following studies is linked most directly to the establishment of the National Research Act in 1974 and ultimately to the Belmont Report and Federal regulations for human subject protection? essay help us: essay help us
Which of the following studies is linked most directly to the establishment of the National Research Act in 1974 and ultimately to the Belmont Report and Federal regulations for human subject protection?
A. The Public Health Service Tuskegee Study of Untreated Syphilis in the Negro Male.
B. Stanford Prison Experiment (Zimbardo).
C. Tearoom Trade Study (Humphreys).
D. The Harvard T3 study.
The Belmont principle of beneficence requires that:
A. The study makes a significant contribution to generalizable knowledge.
B. Subjects derive individual benefit from study participation.
C. Risks are managed so that they are no more than minimal.
D. Potential benefits justify the risks of harm.
Humphreys collecting data for the Tearoom Trade study under the pretense that he was a lookout is an example of a violation of the principle of:
A. Justice.
B. Beneficence.
C. Respect for persons.
According to the Belmont Report, the moral requirement that there be fair outcomes in the selection of research subjects, expresses the principle of:
A. Beneficence.
B. Justice.
C. Respect for persons.
Which of the following is an example of how the principle of beneficence is applied to a study involving human subjects?
a. Providing detailed information about the study to potential subjects.
b. Ensuring that risks are reasonable in relationship to anticipated benefits.
c. Ensuring that the selection of subjects is fair.
d. Ensuring that subjects understand that participation is voluntary
According to the federal regulations, which of the following studies meets the definition of research with human subjects?
a. A researcher asks the director of a local free clinic about the number of patients in the last two years with newly diagnosed HIV/AIDS.
b. A researcher conducts a linguistic study of comments posted on a local public blog.
c. A researcher uses the Customs Office’s passenger lists for ships bringing immigrants to the US between1820-1845 to track the numbers of immigrants from certain ethnic groups.
d. A developmental psychologist videotapes interactions between groups of toddlers and their care givers to determine which intervention methods most effectively manage aggression.
According to the federal regulations, which of the following studies meets the definition of research with human subjects?
a. An organization for women academics in engineering asks a federal agency to provide the number of women investigators funded by that agency to include in a report for its membership.
b. An experiment is proposed on the relationship between gender-related stereotypes in math and the subsequent performance by males and females on math tests.
c. A university designs an in-house study to improve the mentoring of women students in its engineering department with the proposed outcome consisting of a report of recommendations for the department.
d. A researcher receives anonymized data for secondary analysis from a survey about gender-related differences in stress levels conducted by a colleague at another university.
According to the federal regulations, which of the following studies meets the definition of research with human subjects?
a. A researcher sets up a meeting with the superintendent of a large and diverse public school system to get data about the ethnic composition of the school system and the number of students receiving free lunches.
b. Undergraduate students in a field methods class are assigned a research question and asked to interview another classmate, to be followed by a class discussion on interview techniques.
c. A researcher conducts a comparison of the comments made in a publicly available blog and the blogger’s comments on a similar topic in a weekly magazine.
d. A cognitive psychologist enrolls undergraduate students for a computer-based study about the effect of mood on problem solving behaviors.
According to the federal regulations, which of the following studies meets the definition of research with human subjects?
a. A feasibility study for implementing a year-round school program, focusing on economic issues such a facilities utilization and transportation costs.
b. The collection of data, by a playground designer hired by the superintendent of schools, about the physical dimensions of school playgrounds, presence of fencing, and the kinds of equipment currently provided.
c. A study of twenty 4th grade classrooms in which researchers ask the schools to systematically vary the time of day reading is taught, and collect weekly assessments of reading comprehension for each child over a three-month period.
d. An analysis of aggregate data comparing statewide high school graduation rates provided by the State Department of Public Instruction, using county tax information.
According to the federal regulations, human subjects are living human beings about whom an investigator obtains data through interaction or intervention with the individual or:
a. Identifiable public information.
b. De-identified private information.
c. Identifiable private information.
d. Observations of public behavior.
According to the federal regulations, research is eligible for exemption, if
a. All the subjects are adults and the risk is minimal.
b. The investigator is experienced in the field of inquiry.
c. The research falls into one of six categories of research activity described in the regulations.
d. Participation in the research will involve 10 minutes or less of the subjects’ time.
In addition to pregnant women, fetuses, and neonates, another subpart of the DHHS regulations provides additional protections for which of the following vulnerable populations?
a. College students.
b. Adults with decisional impairments.
c. The elderly.
d. Prisoners.
According to federal regulations, the expedited review process may be used when the study procedures pose:
a. A minor increase over minimal risk and the sponsor needs approval before the next IRB meeting.
b. More than minimal risk, but the study replicates previously approved research.
c. Any level of risk, but all the subjects are adults.
d. No more than minimal risk and the research activities fall within regulatory categories identified as eligible.
Continuing review of an approved and ongoing protocol
a. Is limited to review of unanticipated problems.
b. Must be conducted by a convened IRB.
c. Is not required unless additional risks have been identified.
d. Must occur within 12 months of the approval date.
Which of the following statements about the relationship between an institution and the institution’s IRB(s) is correct?
a. Institutional priorities take precedence over all IRB determinations.
b. Department chairs can overturn an IRB disapproval.
c. Officials of the institution may overrule an IRB approval.
d. Officials of the institution may overturn an IRB disapproval.
An investigator wishes to study generational differences in coping mechanisms among adults who experienced abuse as children. Adequate measures will be instituted to obtain informed consent and ensure that there is no breach of confidentiality. The most likely additional risk is that some subjects may:
a. Experience emotional or psychological distress.
b. Lose their legal status.
c. Lose their employment.
d. Feel that their privacy has been invaded.
If disclosure of a subject’s involvement in a specific research study can be potentially harmful to the subject, and the consent form is the only record linking the subject to the research, which of the following would be most helpful:
a. Have the subject sign the consent form under an assumed name.
b. Obtain a Certificate of Confidentiality.
c. Code the subjects’ responses.
d. Obtain a waiver of documentation of informed consent.
The primary purpose of a Certificate of Confidentiality is to:
a. Prevent subjects from knowing the purpose of a study.
b. Allow law enforcement to investigate abuse cases.
c. Protect researchers from disclosing conflicts of interest.
d. Protect identifiable research information from compelled disclosure.
Risk should be evaluated solely by the magnitude or severity of expected harm, not probability.
True
False
What statement about risks in social and behavioral sciences research is most accurate:
a. If a study offers potential benefits, it is not necessary to minimize risks.
b. Anonymizing data effectively manages the risk of creating emotional distress.
c. There are never any risks.
d. Risks are specific to time, situation, and culture.
A therapist at a free university clinic treats elementary school children with behavior problems who are referred by a social service agency. She is also a doctoral candidate who proposes using data she has and will collect about the children for a case-based research project. Which of the following statements about parental permission is correct?
a. The therapist creates her clients’ records; therefore, she does not need parents’ permission to use the information for research purposes.
b. If it is the best interests of the community that the children participate in the study, parental permission is optional.
c. The superintendent of the school system can give permission for children to be in the study; therefore, the therapist doesn’t have to ask the parents for permission.
d. The parents of the children might feel pressure to give permission to the therapist to use their children’s data so that she will continue to provide services to their children.
A general requirement for informed consent is that no informed consent may include any exculpatory language. Exculpatory language is that which waives or appears to waive any of the subject’s legal rights or releases or appears to release those conducting the research from liability for negligence. Which of the following statements in a consent form is an example of exculpatory language?
a. Your participation in this research is voluntary. If you choose not to participate, or change your mind later, your decision will not affect your relationship with the researcher or your right to other services that you may be eligible for.
b. Taking part in the research is voluntary, but if you choose to take part, you waive the right to legal redress for any research-related injuries.
c. The researcher may stop you from taking part in this research without your consent if you experience side effects that make your emotional condition worse. If you become too emotionally distressed during the research, you may have to drop out.
d. In the event of any distress you may have related to this research, you will be given access to appropriate resources.
A criterion for waiving informed consent is that, when appropriate, subjects are provided additional pertinent information after the study. In which of the following studies would it NOT be appropriate to provide subjects with information about missing elements of consent:
a. A study in which researchers told students that they would be given a quiz after reading some study materials when the researchers did not intend to use a quiz, but were attempting to focus subjects’ attention on the material.
b. A study in which subjects were assigned to study activities based on an undesirable or unflattering physical characteristic as assessed by members of the research team.
c. A study involving decision-making games in which subjects were led to believe that they were interacting with another student in another room, but were actually interacting with a computer programmed to provide consistent responses to all subjects.
d. A study in which subjects were told that they performed in the third quartile on an anagram task when in reality students were randomly assigned scores that were not related to their actual performance.
A waiver of the requirement for documentation of informed consent may be granted when:
a. The subjects are literate in their own language; however, they do not read, write, or speak English
b. Potential subjects might find some of the research questions embarrassing, personal, or intrusive
c. The investigator has no convenient place to store signed consent forms separate from the research data
d. The only record linking the subject and the research is the consent document and the principal risk is a breach of confidentiality.
As part of the consent process, the federal regulations require researchers to:
a. Describe penalties that may be imposed for non-participation.
b. Recommend that potential subjects discuss their decision to participate with family members.
c. Provide a list of the IRB members who reviewed the protocol.
d. Provide potential subjects with information at the appropriate reading comprehension level.
Week3 Assignment Special Education Reform Essay college essay help online free
Week3 assignment
Special Education Reform Essay
View Rubric
Due Date: Apr 13, 2016 23:59:59 Max Points: 100
Details:
Using the GCU Library, locate five scholarly articles on changes and/or reforms in special education during the past 100 years.
Review the Topic 3 Lecture for a description of what is considered a scholarly article.
In a 750-1,000-word essay, compare and contrast the three most significant positive and negative changes in special education. Discuss the changes/reforms you think still need to be made.
Prepare this assignment according to the APA guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.
This assignment uses a rubric. Review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.
You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin.
EDU-535 Lecture 3
Learning How to Research
Introduction
In Topic 1, you learned about the importance of scholarship and a little about what it takes to transition from student to scholar. In this Topic, you will learn about the heart of scholarship: Research. Learning how to research is critical to your transition from student to scholar, because it is a significant component of how you master the knowledge in your field, which will in turn equip you to contribute to the improvement of practice in your field. Review the learning objectives for this Topic within the course syllabus and use the following lecture, which is about the role of research in scholarship, to accomplish them.
What Do We Mean by Research?
You may have used the term research in many different scenarios and settings. You may have had to research locations of companies offering a particular service you needed, or maybe you had to research different schools before deciding to enroll at GCU. The term research is often used loosely in informal settings to mean, as illustrated in the previous examples,the search for information−but what does research mean in an academic setting? What does research mean in graduate study? What does research mean to the aspiring scholar wishing to improve the field in which they work?
According to The Free Dictionary, researchis defined as “scholarly or scientific investigation or inquiry.” A Google search defines research as “the systematic investigation into and study of materials and sources in order to establish facts and reach new conclusions.” The first definition uses the term scholarly, which, as you learned in Topic 1, refers to a “learned person” who more than likely has mastered a particular discipline. The second definition mentions “the study of materials and sources.” This could include people, theories, concepts, studies, and a variety of other sources. Both definitions mention “systematic or scientific investigation,” which means an orderly and logical process that is carried out in the act of research. Analyzing both definitions should provide you with a better understanding of what research means in an academic setting, and to your ability to advance in your field by contributing to its improvement.
What Am I Researching For, Again?
Throughout your graduate study, you will learn to distinguish between two types of published knowledge−scientific and professional−and become familiar with sources that specialize in each type of knowledge. Mastering both the scientific and professional knowledge in your field is the first step in making the transition from student to scholar.
Scientific and Professional Knowledge
Scientific knowledge is information or data that has been scientifically tested to be applicable under specified circumstances and constitutes the most reliable source for solving problems and making decisions. Professional knowledge is, typically, information or data gained by practitioners or organizations and published because the knowledge was believed to be applicable and useful to other practitioners or organizations within the same field. Ultimately, the application of both types of knowledge to your chosen field is the hallmark of scholarship.
Main Sources of Scientific and Professional Knowledge
Scientific knowledge is disseminated primarily through peer-reviewed scientific journals, also called academic or research journals. Each field has its own recognized scientific journals, where the most prestigious authors prefer to publish. Submissions to such journals are selected for publications through a blind review process based on systematic criteria that are public domain.
Another source of scientific knowledge are academic publishers that specialize in textbooks, collective volumes edited by prestigious experts (often senior graduate faculty with substantial research and publication experience), and treatises on major topics authored by the top experts in the field. All major publishers have their manuscripts reviewed by prestigious experts in their field.
A third source of scientific knowledge includes papers presented at academic conferences. Like journal articles, conference papers are selected through a peer-review process. The difference between the peer-review systems of academic journals and academic conferences is that the former has a relatively stable and prestigious review team that ensures consistency across time and enforces agreed-upon high standards, whereas the latter relies on scarce, occasional volunteers who pick the targeted number of best available papers out of the pool of submissions. Consequently, there is no guarantee about the scientific quality of conference papers. This explains why conferences have become springboards or first stops for researchers whose final destination is an academic journal. The conference reviewers’ feedback and the questions asked during the discussion following the presentation of a paper are used by authors to prepare their articles for submission to the appropriate journals.
A fourth source of scientific information includes theses and dissertations, which most often rely entirely on scientific sources. The research findings they present have to be scrutinized very carefully for limitations and possible flaws, because the only scholarly reviewers of each thesis or dissertation are the members of the author’s committee. The quality of the knowledge contained within a thesis or dissertation depends not only on the pooled expertise of committee members, but also on the quality standards of the university that granted the degree. Considering the variability of standards across universities, the findings of graduate research presented in theses and dissertations ought to be used with great caution.
In addition to the layered sources of scientific knowledge, each field has a growing amount of sources of professional knowledge, which disseminates that knowledge in a variety of formats and, generally, has fewer requirements and a more flexible selection criterion. The preferred format is the professional journal. Authors’ access to professional publications is governed by factors such as the prestige of the author and/or the organizations they represent, the urgency and importance of the issue to the target audience, the scope and dollar value of potential practical applications of information contained in the material, and the engaging quality of the material (e.g., comprehensibility, human interest, entertainment). Scientific quality rarely comes into play as a selection criterion.
So What Does All of This Mean to Me?
As a graduate student, you will use scientific and professional knowledge you gain through research in academic and professional journals to:
· Support your communication efforts (writing assignments, discussion question responses, etc.) to express your understanding and achievement of course learning objectives
· Demonstrate mastery of knowledge in your field
To successfully research academic and professional journals, you must learn to navigate the GCU Library. Access to the GCU Library is found under the “Resources” tab within your LoudCloud classroom. For more information on how to successfully navigate the GCU Library, complete the “Library Walk Through” tutorial.
Review the resources posted by the Library for your program.
Conduct a keyword search using one of the Library databases or ask a librarian for assistance.
When you locate a relevant and appropriate resource, an effective way to locate additional resources is to look in the resource section of the resource you found. There, you will find references the author used to support their writing. You may ask, “How do I know if the resource is an appropriate source for use in my writing?” Visit the Cornell University Library for a review of how to critically analyze information sources. Also, complete the “Evaluating Websites” tutorial, located in the GCU Library.
Academic Integrity
Academic integrity is a vital component to be a successful scholar, particularly regarding the use of academic resources. The following explanation of what academic integrity means at GCU, was taken from the GCU website:
Academic integrity is at the heart of GCU’s values and is integral to our university community. According to the Center for Academic Integrity, there are five fundamental values that are center to academic integrity: honesty, trust, fairness, respect, and responsibility. Students who utilize the work of others without proper citation or reference are in violation of these values, and are committing academic dishonesty. Such dishonesty not only discredits the student who is plagiarizing the work of another, but also the university community as a whole. At GCU, we encourage students to develop practices that support academic integrity, such as independent learning, developing study skills such as note-taking and time-management, and respecting the ideas of others by utilizing proper citations and references. It is the responsibility of all GCU students to be familiar with the specific policies pertaining to student conduct and academic integrity that are outlined in the University Policy Handbook.
All students are expected to demonstrate a high standard of conduct and academic integrity in the classroom. Visit the GCU website to review Academic Integrity in the University Policy Handbook, as well as policy violation examples of academic dishonesty.
The instructor determines the in-class penalty for academic dishonesty. An in-class penalty may include, but is not limited to, rewriting the assignment or paper with or without point deductions, or awarding no or limited points for a specific assignment or paper. The instructor may request a University-level penalty, which may include, but is not limited to, awarding a failing grade for the course, removing a student from class, academic suspension, or academic expulsion from the University. An instructor may not prevent a student from attending or completing a course, as this would be a University-level decision. One of the most significant examples of academic dishonesty is plagiarism.
Plagiarism
Plagiarism is claiming credit for someone else’s work or ideas. Examples of plagiarism include:
· Creating documents or producing materials without crediting the source.
· Presenting as new or original any idea or product from an existing source.
· Paraphrasing or condensing ideas from another’s source without proper citation and referencing or primarily using other sources for the content of a paper.
· Intentionally or unintentionally using the words, works, or ideas of others and representing them as one’s own in any academic exercise.
· Wrongful use of electronically stored or transmitted work.
As a GCU student, you are responsible for authenticating any assignment submitted to an instructor. Proving that the assignment submitted is actually your own work. This includes:
· Producing copies of sources that are cited or referenced.
· Using Internet searches or Turnitin, if necessary.
· Being able to explain your work or process orally.
· Pass a quiz based on your submitted work.
· Knowing how to properly cite and reference information sources.
· Knowing GCU’s Code of Conduct, as stated in the Academic Catalog and Student Handbook.
Penalties
As stated previously, the instructor determines the in-class penalty for academic dishonesty. Depending on the amount, severity, and frequency of the plagiarism that is committed, students may receive in-class penalties that range from coaching (for a very minor omission) to zero credit for a specific assignment, or even receiving a failing grade in the class. In addition, University-level penalties may occur up to and including suspension or expulsion from the University.
Conclusion
This topic focused on the importance of research to your transition from student to scholar and, ultimately, a master of the knowledge base within your field. Up to this point, topics covered have been general in nature and focused on knowledge and skills you will need to be a successful graduate student at GCU. In the final topic, you will learn about important information regarding your specific college and program of study.
References
Research. (n.d.). In The Free Dictionary online dictionary. Retrieved from http://www.thefreedictionary.com/research
© 2014. Grand Canyon University. All Rights Reserved.
Electronic Resource1. Critically Analyzing Information Sources: Ten Things to Look for When You Evaluate an Information Source
Read “Critically Analyzing Information Sources: Ten Things to Look for When You Evaluate an Information Source,” from the Cornell University Library website.
http://guides.library.cornell.edu/criticallyanalyzing
2. Overview and Contradictions
Read “Overview and Contradictions,” from the Purdue Online Writing Lab website.
http://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/589/01/
3. APA Style Guide
Review the APA guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, which is located in the Student Success Center, to help you prepare for the Educational Reform Essay.
4. Purdue Online Writing Lab
Review the Purdue Online Writing Lab to help you prepare for the Educational Reform Essay.
https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/
5. Library Walk Through
Watch the “Library Walk Through” tutorial, located in the GCU Library.
http://tutorials.gcumedia.com/libraryWalkThrough/vp02.swf
6. Evaluating Websites
Watch the “Evaluating Websites” tutorial, located in the GCU library.
http://tutorials.gcumedia.com/evaluatingWebTutorial/vp02.swf
7. Education LibGuide
Check the resources posted by the GCU Library for COE programs.
http://libguides.gcu.edu/Education
8. Education Database
Use the Education Database to assist you with your research.
http://library.gcu.edu/Database/Subject/Education
9. Ask a Librarian
Explore the “Ask A Librarian” page, located in the GCU Library.
http://library.gcu.edu/AskALibrarian
Here the rubric on the assignment
1
No Evidence
0.00%
2
Nominal Evidence
69.00%
3
Unacceptable Evidence
74.00%
4
Acceptable Evidence
87.00%
5
Target Evidence
100.00%
100.0 %Criteria
35.0 %Compare and Contrast Positive and Negative Changes in Education
No submission.
Essay has little or nothing to do with the positive and negative changes in education.
Essay inadequately compares and contrasts positive and negative changes in education and is overly simplistic. Few details and/or examples are given.
Essay clearly compares and contrasts positive and negative changes in education. It provides basic, appropriate supporting details and/or examples.
Essay skillfully and convincingly compares and contrasts positive and negative changes in education. It includes several distinctive supporting details and/or examples.
35.0 %Discuss Changes and/or Reforms to Education
No submission.
Essay has little or nothing to do with changes/reforms to education.
Inadequately discusses changes/reforms to education. Essay is overly simplistic, and few details and/or examples are given.
Clearly discusses changes/reforms to education. Essay provides basic, appropriate supporting details and/or examples.
Skillfully and convincingly discusses changes/reforms to education. Essay includes several distinctive supporting details and/or examples.
15.0 %Organization
No submission.
Statement of purpose is not justified by the conclusion. Argument is illogical. Conclusion does not support the claims made.
Purpose statement is vague, and claims do not thoroughly support it. Argument and conclusion are orderly but present unconvincing justification of claims.
Purpose statement and conclusion are clear. Argument shows logical progression. There is a smooth progression of claims from introduction to conclusion.
Purpose statement and related conclusion are clear and convincing. Information is well organized and logical. Argument presents a persuasive claim in a distinctive and compelling manner.
10.0 %Research Citations
No submission.
Reference page includes errors and/or inconsistently used citations. Sources are not credible.
Reference page lists sources used in the paper. Sources are appropriate and documented, although errors are present.
In-text citations have few errors. References used are reliable, and reference page lists all cited sources with few errors.
In-text citations and a reference page are complete and correct. Sources are credible. The documentation of cited sources is free of error.
5.0 %Mechanics
No submission.
Surface errors are pervasive enough that they impede communication of meaning. Inappropriate word choice and/or sentence construction are used.
Frequent and repetitive mechanical errors distract the reader. Inconsistent language and/or word choice are present. Sentence structure is lacking.
Prose is largely free of mechanical errors, although a few may be present. The writer uses a variety of effective sentence structures and figures of speech, as well as some practice and content-related language.
Submission is nearly/completely free of mechanical errors and has a clear, logical conceptual framework. Word choice reflects well-developed use of practice and content-related language. Sentence structures are varied and engaging.
100 %Total Weightage
Her is a sample how she wants it do
Special Education Reform
Student Name Here
Grand Canyon University
EDU 535
Kimber O. Underdown (Instructor)
July 20, 2015
Special Education Reform
Over the last 100 years there have been many different reforms to the educational system. With these changes the country has seen many positive changes and many negative changes due to these reforms. Some of the most influential changes have occurred because of No Child Left Behind, the Montessori Movement, IDEA, The Technology Movement, and Inclusion. This paper will address each of these and clarify the positive changes, those that may not be positive, and what changes still need to be made to bring America back to the forefront in the world of education.
Positive Changes
The positive changes seen in the United States educational system since these reforms have been put into place have made a tremendous impact. With No Child Left Behind, the teachers and the schools are being held at a higher quality of standards to where educators and schools have to make sure that the children are reaching the state’s goals (Aske, Connolly, & Corman, 2013). This is a good thing because teachers are required to ensure that they are being the best educators that they can be; but also that they are trying to find different ways to teach student, some that may be considered “outside the box” in order to ensure that the students are grasping the concepts being taught. Some of the biggest things NCLB did to impact education include the assessment of student achievement; the public being able to access information regarding student/school performance (which increases public accountability); and laws that provides parents with personal choice in the schools their children attend (Aske, et al., 2013).
Another positive that has occurred in the education system is with the Technology Movement and that with the technology the students are learning new skills that they would not have without the technology. “Correspondingly, opportunities to learn and teach are expanded far beyond what would have been possible without the current revolution in technology” (Flair, 2014, page 12). The final positive thing that has come out of educational reforms is with the Montessori Movement. The Montessori Movement has made a major impact on how teachers are trained. When teachers first started out teaching they did not have any training, but once the Montessori Movement came about the teachers were given training on how to create teacher materials, and how to make things better for the students to where they understood what they were learning (Kayili & Ari, 2011). “The basis of the Montessori education is to make child independent and prepare the most suitable environment to support child’s development” (Kayili, et al., 2011, pg. 2105).
Negative Changes
With every change that happens in this world there are always some drawbacks or negative repercussions. Within the educational system there have been several in recent years. With No Child Left Behind, the teachers are being held to a higher standard and when they do not meet that standard they are at risk of losing their jobs or at least losing some pay. “According to NCLB, schools are expected to increase their performance for all students on an annual basis” (Tavakolian & Howell, 2012, pg. 72). This may seem entirely positive, but it does not take into account the educators who are given high case loads of students with special needs, English Language Learning needs, behavior problems, or students with high socioeconomic needs. These groups of students have historically been lower performers and while they definitely need to be taught and make progress, sometimes the progress made by these students is seen in different ways that standardized testing does not fully demonstrate (Tavakolian, et al., 2012).
Another negative aspect that has come to light with the educational reforms is within the technology movement. The technology movement, as it implies, uses technology, but some may say is it too much and too often (Flair, 2014). Since Americans rely on technology to function, teachers, as well as students, may not know how to preform basic skills on their own without it. “Another criticism of technology in education is that technology may be hindering skill development among school-aged children” (Chmiel, 2014, page 112).
The last negative thing that has come out of the above mentioned educational reforms is within the Montessori Movement itself. The Montessori Movement has made a major impact on how teachers are trained, which is great. Teachers were then trained on child development, teacher-created materials, and standards that were more child-led. “In keeping with this belief, the Montessori method emphasizes sensory training and the use of didactic materials, learning episodes, and physical exercises in a structured environment” (Webb, Metha, & Jordan, 2013, pg.196). This may not seem like a negative, but it can be construed as one since it requires a high level of student motivation and does not take into account the current standards all educators and students are being held to; a sense of balance therefore needs to exist. Additionally, the training is expensive and most schools require the teachers to pay for their own training to be current in their practice (Webb et al., 2013).
Reform
As mentioned above, many reforms have been made throughout the years; not all have been positive and not all have been negative and each tends to have both positive and negative aspects. Future reforms are likely to incorporate more parent choice, less reliance on strict standardized testing as a reflection of a teacher’s or a school’s proficiency, and more inclusion for students with various differences and diverse abilities. It is also likely that future reforms will allow more use of technology in the classroom, focus on science, engineering, technology, and math, and transition planning for children at a younger age (Colvin, 2012).
In conclusion within the United States there have been many positive changes as well as negative changes with regards to educational reform. There will always be changes in the education system, and teachers will need to follow the laws and adapt to the changes, even if they do not always agree with them. These changes that the top branches of government have put into place are to benefit the students and provide them with a quality education. While at times cumbersome, and sometimes feeling overwhelming, these reforms are implemented for a reason. One thing that does not change is the need for education to continue to change; in doing so, students and educators are able to keep up with the ever-changing global demands of the world and its ever-changing economy. Only through reform will today’s children become tomorrow’s world leaders.
References
Aske, D. R., Connolly, L.S., & Corman, R. R. (2013). Accessibility or accountability? The rhetoric and reality of no child left behind. Journal of Economics & Economic Education Research, 14(3), 107-118.
Chmiel, M. P. (2014). Education technology. Salem Press Encyclopedia, 92(3), 123-130.
Colvin, R. (2012). A rocky future for school reform. Phi Delta Kappan, 94(4), 66-67.
Kayili, G., & Ari, R. (2011). Examination of the effects of the montessori method on preschool children’s readiness to primary education. Educational Sciences: Theory And Practice, 11(4), 2104-2109.
Tavakolian, H., & Howell, N. (2012). The Impact of No Child Left Behind Act. Franklin Business & Law Journal, (1), 70-77.
Webb, L. D., Metha, A., & Jordan, K. F. (2013). Foundations of American education (7th ed.). Upper Saddle River, N.J.: Merrill
Performance feedback is most effective when managers
Choose one answer essay help us: essay help us
Answer the following questions:
1. Performance feedback is most effective when managers
Choose one answer.
a. communicate tactfully and honestly with employees being appraised.
b. stress the feedback interview more than the evaluation interview.
c. stress positive performance and downplay negative performance.
d. stress the evaluation interview more than the feedback interview.
e. evaluate their subordinates on a daily basis. Incorrect
2. As an HRM specialist, you are responsible for orienting a new group of employees. Your orientation topics will include all but of the following except
Choose one answer.
a. location of the company cafeteria. Incorrect
b. introduction to coworkers.
c. interviewing skills.
d. career paths within the firm.
e. company benefits.
3. The effects of economic conditions on consumers’ ability and willingness to buy would best be called ____ forces.
Choose one answer.
a. technological
b. sociocultural
c. competitive Incorrect
d. economic
e. legal and regulatory
4. Jefferson Inc. (JI) is a relatively new company that wants to improve its employee rewards, compensation, and benefits. The company understands that there are effective reward systems that will motivate employees. However, JI management is not sure which would be the best for the company. Compensation, another important area, must also be improved so that it will satisfy all employees effectively. In addition, the company wants to create benefits to keep the employees not just satisfied, but also motivated. Yet another pressing issue is deciding on the training methods that are to be used to successfully teach the new employees.
JI believes that it will be on the right path if all of these changes can be successfully accomplished. The company plans to incorporate performance appraisals so it can be sure that the rewards, compensation, and benefits are effectively distributed.
Refer to Jefferson, Inc. JI management needs to know that effective reward systems must do which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. distinguish the best from the rest
b. enable employees to satisfy basic needs
c. provide non comparable rewards to those offered by other firms so JI can be differentiated
d. distribute to the top performers only in the organization
e. recognize that all people have the same needs, which can be satisfied with more money Incorrect
5. Employee compensation systems are generally developed and administered by ____, and pay increases and promotions are usually recommended by ____.
Choose one answer.
a. top management; HRM specialists Incorrect
b. unions; line managers
c. HRM staff; line managers
d. top management; unions
e. professional HR consultants; HRM staff personnel
6. Coca-Cola wants to determine how popular its new soft drink will be before launching it nationwide. What will Coca-Cola most likely use?
Choose one answer.
a. its marketing information system Incorrect
b. external data
c. internal data
d. marketing research
e. employee survey
7. Jim Wilson is trying out for his high school varsity basketball team. Jim feels he needs an extra advantage to ensure that he makes the team, so he goes to Foot Locker. Once at the store, he chooses the best looking and most expensive shoes the store carries. Jim’s buying process is influenced most by ____ factors.
Choose one answer.
a. socioeconomic
b. social Incorrect
c. psychological
d. situational
e. aesthetic
8. Cindy Jones worked as a welder for BCD Company for ten years before it changed its rigid tuition reimbursement policy. This year, the new education support policy will allow her to take any course that interests her, not just a course in her field of employment. She is very excited about this and has enrolled in two management courses. She has always thought she had the ability to become a good manager. Cindy is attempting to satisfy her ____ needs.
Choose one answer.
a. esteem
b. self-actualization
c. physiological Incorrect
d. social
e. safety
9. Lindley Company is interested in verifying previous job responsibilities held by its applicants. The selection technique that will be most helpful in obtaining this information is the _____.
Choose one answer.
a. employment test
b. interview
c. assessment center Incorrect
d. employment application
e. reference check
10. Lisa is a high school student. All of her friends buy their jeans from Express, so she decides to buy Express jeans even though Levi’s fit her better. Lisa’s purchasing decision is most influenced by ____ factors.
Choose one answer.
a. psychological
b. situational
c. demographic
d. personality Incorrect
e. social
11. Using information about customers to create marketing strategies that develop and sustain desirable long-term customer relationships is known as _____.
Choose one answer.
a. computer resource management
b. customer resource management Incorrect
c. customer relationship management
d. customer research management
e. e-marketing
12. Mr. Cole was due to give evaluations of his company’s top managers in a few days. He had heard little from Tom Wilson, one of his sales managers, for the past eleven months. On looking over Tom’s progress record, Cole saw that Tom usually met his monthly goals. Nevertheless, he was not an outstanding employee. However, this month Tom had submitted a marketing idea that tripled sales for five slow-moving products. When asked to name the outstanding sales manager of the year, Cole could not think of a person more worthy than Tom. Disappointed that they were overlooked, several top managers complained that, in his decision, Cole was
Choose one answer.
a. allowing poor performance on one activity to influence his overall judgment.
b. allowing recent performance to be overemphasized.
c. discriminating on the basis of gender.
d. overemphasizing some issues and underemphasizing others. Incorrect
e. discriminating on the basis of race and age.
13. Garrett Enterprise is a well-known company that has been around for many years. However, Mr. Smith, its CEO, has noticed recently that the company is not performing up to par. He has been watching the employees closely. Mr. Smith saw that his workers do only what is required and that no one seems to go above and beyond what is necessary.
He thinks this is odd because Garrett Enterprise used to have dedicated employees who felt a real sense of ownership toward the company. Now it seems that the employees need to be watched all the time just to make sure they are doing the minimum required. The company has always tried to help its employees through various measures, but recently these measures have been unsuccessful.
Mr. Smith also observed that the employees were not engaging with each other. They all seemed to be at ease with each other, but there was very little interaction. When Mr. Smith asked his top managers to study the situation more closely, they reported that the employees were neither dissatisfied nor motivated.
Mr. Smith decided that things needed to change. He decided that the managers would reward only very good behaviors and punish anything that was considered bad behavior. While this may not be the best option, Mr. Smith believes that it may work for the near future.
Refer to Garrett Enterprise. Based on Herzberg’s theory, which of these factors was applied to employees?
Choose one answer.
a. hygiene
b. enthusiasm Incorrect
c. reinforcement
d. motivation
e. inspiration
14. Ford recently hired twenty employees to work in various departments of the company. On the first day, all twenty had the same orientation and attended the same training and development sessions. They were most likely engaged in what form of training?
Choose one answer.
a. classroom teaching and lectures
b. role playing
c. conference and seminars Incorrect
d. on-the-job methods
e. simulations
15. Which of the following is the most likely basis on which a market for boats can be segmented?
Choose one answer.
a. the end use of the product
b. the size of the product Incorrect
c. the product’s proximity to a retail outlet
d. religion
e. the color of the product
16. The most humane form of workforce reduction is _____.
Choose one answer.
a. attrition
b. layoff Incorrect
c. early retirement
d. termination
e. employee strikes
17. Which of the following is not a major category of factors that influence the consumer buying process?
Choose one answer.
a. social
b. psychological
c. buying center
d. situational
e. both social and situational Incorrect
18. The team member concerned with the emotional needs of others is fulfilling what role?
Choose one answer.
a. caregiver
b. psychologist
c. mother hen
d. leadership Incorrect
e. socio-emotional
19. Which of the following is not a compensation decision?
Choose one answer.
a. the wage-level decision
b. the individual-wage decision Incorrect
c. the wage-cut decision
d. the wage-structure decision
e. Both the wage-cut decision and the wage-structure decision are correct.
20. Sprint employees who sell cellular phones and calling plans are evaluated based on their total sales per hour worked. This is a/an ____ appraisal method.
Choose one answer.
a. objective
b. judgmental
c. subjective
d. performance-based Incorrect
e. time-consuming
21. Dunn & Company wants to use a training method to help managers understand and cope with employees’ problems. What method would you suggest?
Choose one answer.
a. simulation training
b. classroom training
c. seminar training
d. on-the-job training Incorrect
e. role playing
22. Under ADA, employers are required to provide reasonable accommodation. Which of the following is an example of reasonable accommodation?
Choose one answer.
a. company-provided lodging for the disabled
b. company-provided transportation for the blind Incorrect
c. additional paid vacation for the mentally ill
d. sign language interpreters for the deaf
e. personal assistants for the disabled
23. All of the following except which are accurate statements about the expectancy theory?
Choose one answer.
a. It is easy to apply.
b. There are various reasons why employees work. Incorrect
c. The reasons people work may change.
d. It is necessary to show employees how to attain the outcomes they desire.
e. It is a very complex model of motivation.
24. An action directly following a particular behavior is called a/an _____.
Choose one answer.
a. activator
b. motivator
c. reinforcement
d. extinction
e. expectant Incorrect
25. People who can verify background information and provide personal evaluations of candidates are called _____.
Choose one answer.
a. informants Incorrect
b. colleagues
c. references
d. assessors
e. paraprofessionals
26. To implement the marketing concept, a firm must first
Choose one answer.
a. mobilize its marketing resources.
b. promote the product.
c. obtain information about its customers’ needs.
d. develop the product. Incorrect
e. determine if customers want the firm to practice the marketing concept.
27. Influences on the external marketing environment that stem from actions of elected and appointed officials are called ____ forces.
Choose one answer.
a. government regulatory Incorrect
b. legal
c. external cultural
d. social
e. political
28. Theory Y is most suitable in a work situation in which workers are
Choose one answer.
a. in need of close supervision.
b. just beginning to learn their jobs. Incorrect
c. highly motivated.
d. unskilled.
e. None of these options are correct.
29. Nathan discovers that his mortgage company’s employees are working very slowly because they are afraid that, if they finish the loans they are currently processing, they will run out of work and lose their jobs. Nathan’s employees are
Choose one answer.
a. displaying laziness.
b. soldiering.
c. suffering from low morale.
d. inexperienced.
e. unqualified for their jobs. Incorrect
30. What happens to a problem-solving team after the assigned problem has been tackled?
Choose one answer.
a. Team members receive a promotion.
b. Team members are fired.
c. The team is disbanded.
d. The team is given another problem. Incorrect
e. The team is given a party.
SOC 2 Quiz essay help site:edu
Read two PowerPoint
· Review Readings: McMichael (Chp 6): Globalization in Practice (153 – 166) and McMichael (Chp 7): Global Countermovement
· Watch movie: Outsourced, available here: https://youtu.be/XqzZ7lVTErQ?list=PL686DFFBE40FC731D
· Take Quizzes 7 (on Chapter 6) & 8 (on Chapter 7) of textbook
HCA340 Final Exam essay help
1. Which action would a hospital administrator take to meet the cultural and linguistic needs of Spanish-speaking community members?
a. Hire health care professionals from different Spanish-speaking countries.
b. Ensure that all health care workers speak Spanish.
c. Ensure that all signage is posted in Spanish as well as English.
d. Ensure health services are in varying locations.
2. On which criterion would the Human Resources manager focus when identifying interpreters to support the care of patients with limited English proficiency?
a. Be of the same ethnic background of the patients
b. Availability of family members
c. Proficient in health language terminology
d. Be on 24-hour call
3. a. Ensure grievances are resolved
b. Plan and implement culturally and linguistically appropriate services
c. Plan for culturally appropriate continuing education for the staff
d. Develop partnerships with community members
4. During an assessment, the nurse asks the patient to describe her current health status. In what context will the patient most likely explain her health?
a. Diagnosis
b. Personal experience
c. Cost
d. Impact on family
5. The nurse desires to become more culturally competent when providing care to patients from
non-English-speaking cultures. Which action would the nurse take to achieve this self-
expectation?
a. Attend a festival from a different culture.
b. Find a seminar on cultural competence.
c. Talk to people from different cultures.
d. Commit to a time-consuming journey.
6. The staff development educator is analyzing ways to incorporate cultural competency concepts in continuing education programs. How will the educator explain the concept of cultural competency to staff?
a. Philosophy
b. Condition
c. Theory
d. Fad
7. A patient from a non-English-speaking culture comes into the health clinic seeking care. The
nurse is unable to determine the patient’s primary language. What should the nurse do?
a. Ask for help to determine the patient’sprimary language.
b. Encourage the patient to seek care elsewhere.
c. Notify Security.
d. Contact a homeless shelter.
8. The nurse is planning care to address health care needs for a non-English-speaking patient
and family. What would the nurse use as a guide for this care?
a. Nursing textbook
b. Standardized care plan
c. Checklist
d. Care map
9. A patient’s parish priest arrives to the care area to visit the patient and provide communion.
What impact does the priest’s visit have on the patient’s health?
a. Reinforces distinctiveness
b. Reinforces acculturation
c. Offers support and provides positive expectation
d. Reinforce assimilation
10. An older patient tells the nurse about being born in a different country and having visited the
home country many times throughout the years. The nurse realizes that the patient is explaining which aspect of culture?
a. Acculturation
b. Religious preference
c. Socialization
d. Heritage consistency
11. A group of nurses talking are overheard using jargon that is consistent with the nursing
profession. Which behavior are the nurses demonstrating?
a. Heritage consistency
b. Ethnicity
c. Acculturation
d. Socialization
12. A seminal event in the boomer generation that can still elicit comments today is the
question:
a. “Do you remember Pearl Harbor?”
b. “Where were you when John F. Kennedy was shot?”
c. “What were you doing on September 11, 2001?”
d. “How did the Challenger tragedy affect you?”
13. A patient from a different culture tells the nurse about eating specific foods during
pregnancy and after childbirth to ensure a healthy mother and infant. Which cultural
phenomena does this behavior exemplify?
a. Environmental control
b. Social organization
c. Time orientation
d. Biological variation
14. Why does the nurse stop and think before implementing touch when providing care to a
patient from a different culture?
a. Impacts time orientation
b. Influences environmental control
c. Influences the patient’s personal space
d. Alters social organization
15. Prior to caring for a Native American patient, the nurse reviews the diseases that are more
prevalent in this culture. What is the nurse taking into consideration when caring for this
patient?
a. Biological variation
b. Environmental control
c. Social organization pattern
d. Component of heritage consistency
16. The nurse learns that a patient from a different culture does not know the names of the
people who are candidates running in the next general election. What assumption can be
made about this assessment finding?
a. The patient cannot read.
b. The patient is heritage consistent.
c. The patient is hard of hearing.
d. The patient does not have a high school education.
17. While completing demographics for a new admission, the nurse notes that there are separate
categories for race and Hispanic origin. What influenced this change to occur in demographic data reporting?
a. Better differentiates categories within the African-American group
b. The number of people identified as non-White was increasing out of proportion to the
population.
c. Identifies which health plans the patient is eligible to enroll in
d. Federal guidelines written in 1997 separated race and Hispanic origin as two separate
concepts.
18. While shifts in the population profile are occurring, what is an important consideration to
address in health care?
a. Cultural health needs of varying groups must be considered.
b. Health care needs to be streamlined for consistent care delivery.
c. More physicians need to be trained to deliver health care.
d. Health care providers need to be younger to care for an aging population.
19. Between the 2000 Census and 2010 Census, what is the most notable statistic about the
total United States population?
a. The population age shift moved towards 18 years and younger.
b. The Asian population increased to become the second-largest minority group in the United States.
c. The U.S. population was over 308 million in 2010.
d. The population shift went from a White majority to White minority status.
20. According to the 2010 Census, 40.3 million people are aged 65 and over. What are the
long-term implications for the health of this group?
a. Providing health care that is focused on gerontological needs
b. Developing medications to prolong life at any cost
c. Providing health insurance for all age groups
d. Developing systems to provide health care only to those older citizens who remain healthy
21. Which criterion limits access to health care?
a. Employment opportunities
b. No public transportation
c. Transition programs for newly arrived legal residents
d. Advocacy groups for immigrants
22. Why would a patient who has a higher income generally have better health outcomes?
a. Have better access to health care
b. Have better job skills
c. Can afford private transportation
d. Can afford private insurance
23. A patient tells the nurse that she lives in Section 8 housing. The nurse realizes that
eligibility for this program is determined by:
a. Employment history
b. Family size
c. Geographic address
d. Low-income guidelines
24. Which definition of health would the nurse most likely use when assessing a patient’s thinking about health?
a. Having a harmonious, balanced relationship with nature
b. Not having any discernible illness or disease
c. Being in a state of physical, mental, and social well-being
d. The ability to get up and go to work each day
25. Which statement exemplifies how a nursing student views health?
a. Must share the client’s views of health and illness
b. Forces clients to accept the medical definitions of health
c. Entered the health care profession with a culturally based concept of health
d. Accepts the prevailing definition of health and applies it to individual clients
26. A group of health care providers are attempting to define health. What can occur during this
discussion?
a. Terms and meanings may be challenged
b. Categories of health will be listed
c. Ambiguity will be resolved
d. Achieves a full acceptance by all parties
27. For many people, health and illness are opposites which can make them view health as
which of the following:
a. A state of physical fitness
b. Freedom from evil that causes illness
c. A state of emotional ambiguity
d. The reward for a productive life
28. Why would health care providers refer to Healthy People 2020 when providing patient care?
a. It is mandated legislation that will result in a healthier population by 2020.
b. It supports health policies that provide monetary incentives to states who reach the
benchmark goals.
c. It serves as a monitoring system that evaluates the health of all citizens.
d. It provides a plan to continue to improve the health of everyone in the United States.
29. A patient has a family history of cardiac disease and has maintained lifestyle changes as a
preventive measure. Within the overall perspective of perceived susceptibility, what is this
patient demonstrating?
a. Perceived benefits
b. Perceived seriousness
c. Taking action
d. Changing modifying factors
30. The nurse determines that a patient is in the onset stage of an illness. What did the nurse
observe in the patient?
a. The first symptoms of a given problem are experienced.
b. There is a gradual resumption of normal roles and activities.
c. The sick role becomes that of being a patient.
d. The disease is identified and socially sanctioned.
31. Which action do most people take when experiencing a mild illness?
a. Rely on self-treatment or do nothing.
b. Ingest herbs specific to how they are feeling.
c. Consult a local faith healer.
d. Immediately seek medical attention.
32. How would the nurse explain alternative medical traditions to a patient?
a. For use in concert with other aspects of health care
b. Outside of the realm of a person’s cultural heritage medical tradition
c. An essential component of a cultural heritage medical tradition
d. Traditional methods of health care
33. Which actions would the nurse categorize as traditional mental health maintenance?
a. Wearing head covering in the cold to preserve head warmth
b. Avoiding physically demanding hobbies
c. Using medications to preserve chemical balance in the brain
d. Activities to concentrate and stimulate the mind
34. While assessing a patient from the Jewish culture, the nurse learns that the patient believes
that an illness is being caused by another soul. What is this health belief considered?
a. Dybbuk
b. Kayn aynhoreh
c. Szatan
d. Aberglobin
35. During an assessment, a patient tells the nurse, “An onion a day keeps everyone away.” How does this philosophy protect health?
a. Recognizes the special antibiotic properties contained within onions
b. Affirms the belief in the power of onions to prevent disease
c. Protects the person from coming in contact with those who might be ill
d. Advertises that onions have special healing abilities
36. Which patient statement reflects a spiritual belief that defines illness?
a. “It is a necessary part of my religious culture.”
b. “I am being punished for breaking a religious code.”
c. “I failed to wear special amulets to ward it off.”
d. “I am sick because I violated dietary practices.”
37. What is an advantage of using complementary medicine for treatment of an illness?
a. Complementary medicine is never used with allopathic medicine.
b. Complementary medicine replaces allopathic medicine as a primary form of treatment.
c. Complementary medicine lessens a patient’s discomfort with allopathic treatments.
d. Complementary medicine can be used with allopathic medicine.
38. Why would the nurse assess a patient’s religion when completing the health history process?
a. Religion plays a role in the perception of health and illness
b. Helps explain recreational habits
c. Provides information about the patient’s geographic location
d. Explains nutritional preferences
39. Which action would the nurse take when assessing the impact of religion, culture, and
ethnicity on a patient’s illness?
a. Recognize that certain ethnic groups practice the same religion.
b. Recognize that all members of an ethnic group will follow the same dietary practices.
c. Recognize that religious preferences may differ between members of an ethnic group.
d. Recognize that certain ethnic groups always practice the same cultural rituals.
40. The nurse overhears a patient ask a family member to bring the Lourdes water to the
hospital. The nurse recalls that this water is believed to cure which health problem?
a. Being bedridden
b. Blindness
c. Bodily ills
d. Deafness
41. A family member tells a patient with terminal cancer not to worry since special prayers have
been said in church. To which saint is prayed for help with cancer?
a. St. Peregrine
b. St. Odilia
c. St. Francis de Sales
d. St. Raymond Nonnatus
42. What would be alternative treatment modalities used during an illness?
a. Strict adherence to the prescribed medical regimen
b. Willingness to seek a second medical opinion
c. Refusal to allow any medical treatment to be performed
d. Consultation of a healer outside the medical establishment
43. A patient follows the teachings of Christian Science and will not take any medications, but
for which health problem will medications be used by members of this religion?
a. Chemotherapy to treat cancer
b. Immunizations to comply with civil law
c. Antibiotics
d. Narcotics for pain relief
44. Which type of healing is most appropriate for a person who is possessed by external evil?
a. Deliverance
b. Physical healing
c. Inner healing
d. Spiritual healing
45. Why is understanding family heritage important?
a. New traditions can be discovered to be incorporated into daily life.
b. It provides answers to questions regarding why family members behaved as they did.
c. Knowing the methods of socialization that were passed down among families can explain social behaviors today.
d. Health practices can be altered as a result of understanding heritage.
46. Why is it important to examine individual familial health/health practices?
a. Rejects those health traditions if they differ from those of the same ethnocultural group
b. Identifies what healing practices need to be used when one is ill
c. Helps a person become sensitized to understand the role that ethnocultural and religious heritage has played within a family
d. Generalizes to all members of the same ethnocultural group the various health practices that are done
47. What is the value of sharing family health practices among people?
a. Encourages feelings of nostalgia for past times with family
b. Supports the rejection of all types of family health practices
c. Recognizes autonomy for the efficacy of the health practices
d. Provides an awareness of the differences between various groups
48. Which health protection action would the nurse assess in a patient who is of Black American
Baptist heritage?
a. Eating fresh lemons
b. Wearing camphor around the neck in the winter
c. Taking a daily shot of whiskey
d. Drinking blackstrap molasses
49. Which health restoration practice for a cold would the nurse assess in a patient of English
Catholic heritage?
a. Drinking honey and vinegar
b. Rubbing the chest with Vicks
c. Gargling with water and vinegar
d. Drinking brandy with warm milk
50. A patient of Swedish-American Protestant descent wants a specific health protection intervention to maintain throat health. Which action will the patient most likely request?
a. Gargling with salt and taking honey with milk
b. Having the throat blessed on St. Blaise Day
c. Ingesting baking soda
d. Staying in a steamy bathroom when the throat is sore
51. Which action would a patient from Italian-American Catholic heritage perform to protect
health?
a. Never washing hair before going outdoors
b. Keeping a kitchen warm
c. Drinking water with meals
d. Taking regular vitamin tonics
52. What is an assumption about socialization into the health care culture?
a. Interventions for health events must follow a prescribed protocol.
b. The more technological the intervention, the greater benefit it yields.
c. Effective treatment can only be done by educated and licensed professionals.
d. Alternative complementary treatments have validity.
53. How does the U.S. health care expenditure per person compare to other nations?
a. Expenditures rank lower than those of other nations.
b. Expenditures are equal with other nations.
c. Expenditures are a fraction of the gross domestic product.
d. Expenditures exceed those of other nations.
54. What impact did social and health policy have on the health care system in the latter part of
the twentieth century?
a. Exploding health care costs and the challenges to reform and control them
b. The majority of health care being paid for through government subsidies
c. Affordable health care for all citizens
d. Health care costs decreasing as a result of social and health policy
55. What would be a reason why a person with sickle cell disease does not receive adequate care
and pain control during a crisis?
a. Physicians are not familiar with the trajectory of a pain crisis.
b. There may be subtle racism exhibited toward those with sickle cell disease.
c. The person isn’t aware that appropriate care for a pain crisis exists.
d. The person may not explain their symptoms appropriately.
56. What would be a barrier to health care for a person who lives in a rural area?
a. Transportation
b. Education
c. Insurance
d. Technology
57. How would the nurse practicing cultural care define health?
a. Experience of well-being and integrity of the mind and body
b. Absence of illness and disease
c. Balance of the person both within and in the outside world
d. Use of science and technology to cure diseases
58. During a health history, the patient describes health restoration activities that are synonymous with cultural care. Which activity would the patient practice to restore health?
a. Participate in human experimentation
b. Complete recommended diagnostic tests
c. Agree to radical treatments
d. Use herbal preparations
59. Which is a characteristic of health insurance usage by the American Indian and Alaska
Native population?
a. Less than among the general population
b. Dependent on federal monies
c. Subsidized by tribal income
d. Greater than among the general population
60. The nurse practitioner desires to provide health care to American Indians. In what part of the
United States would the nurse find the largest concentration of American Indians to provide
care?
a. West
b. North
c. South
d. East
61. What might a patient from the American Indian culture use to prevent disease?
a. Wear certain objects or charms as a preventive measure
b. Perform specific daily rituals against disease
c. Deny that disease or illness can harm a person
d. Accept that disease is a part of life
62. Which American Indian tribe associates illness with evil spirits?
a. Sioux
b. Passamaquoddy
c. Hopi
d. Cherokee
63. Which action is considered to be a traditional practice among American Indians to maintain
their harmony with nature?
a. Eating ritual foods
b. Lunar cycle agriculture
c. Purification
d. Divination
64. In which American Indian tribe are meditation and herbs used to create a trance to provide
the vision of the evil that causes an illness?
a. Cherokee
b. Sioux
c. Navajo
d. Hopi
65. A patient that is of the American Indian culture is waiting to be seen in a non-Indian Health
Service facility. What concern might this patient have about receiving health care through
this route?
a. Conflict between his or her perception of the illness and what the physician diagnoses
b. Easier to receive medical care through emergency departments rather than private physicians
c. Receive better health care from mainstream medical services
d. Concern that medical insurance won’t cover all the medical costs
66. In which cities do the largest number of naturalized Asian citizens reside?
a. Washington, D.C.
b. New York
c. Houston
d. Chicago
67. What is the birthplace for the largest percentage of Asians who became naturalized in 2010?
a. India
b. Philippines
c. People’s Republic of China
d. Vietnam
68. What does Chinese medicine teach about health?
a. It is the way to ultimate reality.
b. It is based in Confucian philosophy.
c. It is the prevention of illness.
d. It is a state of spiritual and physical harmony with nature.
69. Which action would a United States health care provider need to take to understand the
Chinese philosophy of health and illness?
a. Live according to the Buddhist precepts.
b. Follow the Confucian way of life.
c. Understand the Chinese culture.
d. Examine Taoist religion and philosophy.
70. Which is a concept of holism in traditional Chinese medicine?
a. Integration of the body with the external environment
b. Energy fields that create health or disease
c. Local pathology as separate from the body
d. Harmonic balance that creates illness
71. Why does the Chinese physician focus on palpating a patient’s pulse?
a. It can help to refine a diagnosis.
b. It indicates a specific treatment.
c. It is considered the storehouse of the blood.
d. It determines the time of death.
72. While assessing the health history of a patient who is an Asian/Pacific Islander, what will the
nurse identify as a leading cause of death for people from this culture?
a. Alzheimer’s disease
b. Influenza and pneumonia
c. Malignant neoplasms
d. Chronic lower respiratory diseases
73. What is the geographic origin of the majority of African Americans?
a. West coast of Africa
b. African interior
c. Southern coast of Africa
d. East coast of Africa
74. What is a traditional Black belief regarding health?
a. The mind, body, and spirit are not separated
b. Health represents energy forces
c. Represents a process rather than a state
d. Believed to be influenced by ancestors
75. Which is considered a traditional Black belief about illness?
a. A separation of body, mind, and spirit
b. A state of disharmony
c. An alteration in the energy force
d. Evil ancestral influence on the person
76. Which health maintenance practice would a patient from the Black culture use to keep the
system’s “open”?
a. Participate in rooting and prayer
b. Have massages
c. Take laxatives
d. Wear amulets
77. Which is a preparation used in the spring of each year by individuals of the Black culture to
protect health?
a. Drinking blackstrap molasses
b. Wearing asafetida around the neck
c. Rubbing a sulfur and molasses preparation on the back
d. Drinking cod liver oil weekly
78. How would a patient from the Black culture treat poison ivy?
a. Sprinkling crushed bluestone powder on the affected area
b. Placing a mixture of garlic, onions, and parsley on the site
c. Placing clay in a dark leaf over the affected area
d. Rubbing Vicks Vaporub on the area
79. During the examination of a patient from the Black culture, how will the nurse recognize
pallor?
a. Slow blood return
b. Palpate the skin
c. Check the sclera
d. Absence of underlying red tones
80. What is important for the nurse to know about high school graduation and college attendance
for Hispanics?
a. The total percentage of Hispanic people who graduated from high school in 2010 was
62.9%.
b. Graduation from college is expected in the Hispanic population.
c. More Hispanics are applying to college than ever before in the history of the United
States.
d. Hispanics who graduate from high school are more likely to be naturalized.
81. What can be surmised regarding the combination of employment patterns and income levels
of Hispanics living in the United States?
a. Capable of remaining above the poverty line
b. Remain at the middle of the economic spectrum for employment
c. More likely to live in poverty than non-Hispanic whites
d. Remain at the lowest level for economic benefits
82. What will a patient from the Mexican culture explain to the nurse as the cause of an illness?
a. Punishment from an ancestor
b. An imbalance within the body
c. Warning from God to live a better life
d. Inevitable with no method to prevent it from occurring
83. A patient from the Mexican culture tells the nurse that an illness has been caused by mal ojo
or bad eye. How did this health problem occur?
a. Excessive admiration from someone else
b. Having a spell caused by black magic
c. Being touched improperly by a health care provider
d. Lying about the amount of food one has eaten
84. Which method will a patient of the Hispanic culture use to counteract illness caused by an
imbalance?
a. Refrain from discussing the illness with family members.
b. Eat foods that are opposite of the imbalance.
c. Seek appropriate medical care from the local healer.
d. Dress appropriately.
85. Which is a dilemma encountered by health care providers when trying to accommodate a
patient of the Mexican culture’s desire to maintain hot and cold
food preferences?
a. Ensuring that all medications are taken with specific foods
b. Avoiding all foods that contain certain spices
c. Obtaining the unusual foods native to a Mexican patientâs diet
d. Understanding which foods the patient considers hot and cold
86. What would the nurse infer about the incidence of lung cancer being lower among Hispanic
women versus that of the general population?
a. Hispanic women are less likely to smoke.
b. Hispanic women are healthier than the general population.
c. Hispanic women have better preventive health practices.
d. Hispanic women are not genetically predisposed to lung cancer.
87. In 2010, which cities in the United States had both the largest number of White alone and
multiple-race White populations?
a. Houston
b. Chicago
c. Los Angeles
d. San Diego
88.What would a patient of Italian descent tell the nurse is the cause of a less severe illness?
a. The evil eye
b. Curses
c. Anxiety
d. Failure to pray
89. Which action would a patient of German descent use to protect health?
a. Always wearing a hat to protect the head
b. Dressing properly for the season
c. Eating garlic with lunch and dinner
d. Drinking orange juice every day
90. What will the nurse assess as an important component of healing for a patient of Italian
descent?
a. Wearing black when a family member is ill
b. Use of garlic and olive oil in tonics
c. Religious faith in God
d. Eating pasta at every meal
91. For what would a patient of Polish descent tell the nurse that paregoric is used?
a. Diarrhea
b. Gas
c. Indigestion
d. Cramps
92. What would the nurse consider about the incidence of cancer when assessing a White
patient?
a. Is significantly lower than other races
b. Is lower than among the overall population
c. Is equal with other races in incidence
d. Is slightly higher than for the overall population
93. When comparing the leading causes of death for all persons, which problem ranks higher for
the White population?
a. Alzheimer’s disease
b. Influenza and pneumonia
c. Diseases of the heart
d. Septicemia
94. Which action would the nurse take to improve cultural care?
a. Expect everyone to embrace the process
b. Confront biases and stereotypes
c. Learn a foreign language
d. Study different cultures
95. The nurse is developing the ability to hears when caring for a patient from a different
culture. What is this nurse doing?
a. Understanding the patient and the patient’s culture
b. Listening to the patient talk in the native language
c. Observing patient-family interactions
d. Identifying cultural inconsistencies
96. What action would a nurse take to learn more about the different cultures represented in the
community?
a. Walk through the community.
b. Prepare a guide sheet with a list of herbs.
c. Recognize hot-cold imbalances.
d. Recognize folk diseases.
97. What is identified as an issue with using an interpreter when communicating with a non-
English-speaking patient?
a. Age of the interpreter
b. Fee for service
c. Different dialects
d. An interpreter interprets
98. A health clinic in a socioeconomically depressed area that provides care to Hispanic patients
is being closed. Which action should the nurse take to support the patients?
a. Investigate the misappropriation of funds
b. Urge for increased funding
c. Create a list of comparable resources outside the community
d. Write directions to the nearest hospital in the patients native
language
99. The nurse is on the journey to learn cultural competence and sees an open highway
ahead. Which action should the nurse take at this time?
a. Cruise along, but not too fast
b. Stop
c. Go faster
d. Expect clear sailing ahead
100. Two nurses are overheard talking about their experiences with cultural competency.
Which experience would be considered an unexpected positive event?
a. Learning a foreign language
b. Role of a healer within a culture
c. Deep love of life and people
d. Being an advocate for funding
i
Data are made anonymous by college application essay help online: college application essay help online
Data are made anonymous by
-Destroying all identifiers connected to the data.
-Requiring all members of the research team to sign confidentiality agreements.
-Keeping the key linking names to responses in a secure location.
-Reporting data in aggregate form in publications resulting from the research.
In a longitudinal study that will follow children from kindergarten through high school and will collect information about illegal activities, which of the following confidentiality procedures would protect against compelled disclosure of individually identifiable information?
-Using data encryption for stored files.
-Securing a Certificate of Confidentiality.
-Waiving documentation of consent.
-Using pseudonyms in research reports.
When a focus group deals with a potentially sensitive topic, which of the following statements about providing confidentiality to focus group participants is correct?
-If group members know each other confidentiality is not an issue.
-Using pseudonyms in reports removes the concern about any confidences shared in the group.
-The researcher cannot control what participants repeat about others outside the group.
-If group participants sign confidentiality agreements, the researcher can guarantee confidentiality.
A researcher leaves a research file in her car while she attends a concert and her car is stolen. The file contains charts of aggregated numerical data from a research study with human subjects, but no other documents. The consent form said that no identifying information would be retained, and the researcher adhered to that component. Which of the following statements best characterizes what occurred?
-There was neither a violation of privacy nor a breach of confidentiality
-The subjects’ privacy has been violated.
-Confidentiality of the data has been breached
-There was both a violation of privacy and a breach of confidentiality.
Which of the following constitutes both a breach of a confidentiality (the research data have been disclosed, counter to the agreement between researcher and subjects) and a violation of subjects’ privacy (the right of the individuals to be protected against intrusion into their personal lives or affairs)?
-A researcher asks cocaine users to provide names and contact information of other cocaine users who might qualify for a study.
-A faculty member makes identifiable data about sexual behavior available to graduate students, although the subjects were assured that the data would be de-identified.
-A researcher, who is a guest, audio-records conversations at a series of private dinner parties to assess gender roles, without informing participants.
-In order to eliminate the effect of observation on behavior, a researcher attends a support group and records interactions without informing the attendees.
An investigator is studying women recently admitted to a state prison. All potential subjects must have children under the age of five. Research subjects will be given a basket of toys to use at their children’s first visit that the children can then take home. In assessing this proposal, the IRB needs to determine that the toys are:
-Educational.
-Not an excessive incentive.
-Of high quality.
-Age appropriate.
An investigator is examining the quality of life for prisoners who are HIV positive using surveys followed by interview. The IRB must ensure that:
The survey instrument is standardized.
Confidentiality of the prisoners’ health status is maintained.
All prisoners receive HIV testing.
A medical doctor serves as co-investigator.
Which of the following statements about prison research is true?
Participation in research can be considered during parole hearings.
Researchers may study the effects of privilege upgrades awarded by the prison.
It is permissible for risks to be higher than those that would be accepted by non-prisoners.
The regulations prohibit compensating prisoners.
A graduate student wants to examine the effect of print media versus televised media on individuals’ position on several social issues. The superintendent of a local work release facility, a family friend, will allow the graduate student access to the prison population to help her quickly accrue subjects. The student’s IRB should:
Approve this project but submit it for federal review.
Approve this project since the risk appears to be no more than minimal.
Not approve this project because the prisoners are merely a population of convenience for the student.
Approve this project since the superintendent is the ultimate authority on what happens in his facility.
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the requirement for the documentation of minors’ assent to participate in research?
Parents must approve written documentation.
To protect minors documentation is always required.
Documentation is required unless waived by an IRB.
Federal regulations do not require the documentation of minors’ assent.
According to Subpart D, research with children may be eligible for exemption when:
The research involves the use of educational tests
The children will be interviewed by the researcher.
The research with children will involve participant observation with researcher interaction.
The children will be asked to complete a survey
A researcher asks an IRB to waive the requirement for parental permission for a study conducted in schools because the nature of the research requires participation of all the children present in classrooms on the day the research will take place. Assuming that the basic research design could be approved by the IRB and the school, which of the following requirements must be met before an IRB could waive parental permission?
Parents must be notified that the study is taking place.
The students must be offered an optional classroom activity.
An independent consultant must approve the waiver.
The research must pose no more than minimal risk.
A study that involves interviews of adults is eligible for expedited review. The researcher wants to add an adolescent population (aged 12 to 17) to the study and has designed a parental permission and assent process. No additional changes are planned. Which of the following statements about review of the revised protocol is accurate?
The research would only be eligible for expedited review if the adolescents are capable of understanding the same consent forms used for the adult population.
The research would only be eligible for expedited review if the adolescents have been declared to be emancipated minors.
Unless the nature of the questions would raise the level of risk to more than minimal for adolescents, the research would still qualify for expedited review.
The new research would need full review by a convened IRB because children are a protected population.
Parental notification, in lieu of active parental permission, is allowed when:
The researcher anticipates a low response rate.
An IRB has approved a waiver of the requirement for parental permission.
The researcher has conducted a similar study at another institution.
The superintendent of schools and the principals have approved the study.
According to Subpart D, which of the following research activities with children would qualify for an exemption?
Survey procedures
Observation of public behavior when the researcher participates in the activities being observed.
Interviews
Research about educational testing
The purpose of the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA) is to:
Ensure that surveys do not ask school children to provide sensitive information about their parents.
Provide parents certain rights over their children’s educational records.
Give school principals the right to discuss students’ behavioral problems with their parents.
Allow school counselors to access students’ grades.
Which federal regulation or law governs how researchers can obtain data about subjects’ disciplinary status in school from academic records?
The No Child Left Behind Act.
Subpart D of 45 CFR 46.
The Protection of Pupil Rights Amendment.
The Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act.
Which of the following is the LEAST important activity when protecting human subjects in international research?
Determining if the research might present unique risks to subjects given local socio-economic conditions.
Considering local customs, norms, and laws.
Assessing transportation conditions
Consulting with members of the community from which subjects will be recruited.
The age of majority in international research is determined by the
Legal drinking age where the research will take place.
Laws in the state where the researchers’ institution resides.
Laws, customs, and norms in the area in which the research will be conducted.
The research sponsor.
Which of the following activities constitutes engagement in research?
Providing potential subjects with written information about a study.
Obtaining informed consent and conducting research interviews.
Informing prospective subjects about the availability of research.
Obtaining subjects’ permission for researchers to contact them.
Researchers endeavoring to conduct an on-line study should consider that there are some potential risks of harm to subjects unique to Internet-based research. One of these risks is:
People assume pseudonymous on-line identities, such as an avatar in an MMORPG.
Online studies do not require the documentation of informed consent.
Recruiting, consenting and debriefing subjects takes place on-line, and may require little to no interaction with the subjects.
Individuals may post private identifiable information about themselves on-line without intending it to be public and available to researchers.
Which of the following on-line research strategies raises the most concerns regarding the ethical principle of respecting the autonomy of research subjects and the corresponding federal regulations requiring informed consent?
A linguist copies portions of postings on a political blog to document the use of expletives, abbreviations, and the use of irony in the postings.
A researcher posts a notice on an open on-line support group for interracial adoptees asking anyone who would be interested in being interviewed for her study to contact her.
A researcher observes the communications in an open support group without announcing her presence. She is interested in observing how long members participate and how the membership shifts over time.
A researcher proposes to join a moderated support group for cancer survivors posing as a survivor. She plans to insert comments to see how the members respond.
Consent to participate in research is an ongoing process. Which of the following strategies would help ensure that participation in a survey about a sensitive personal topic remains voluntary throughout a study?
Designing the survey so that subjects are not forced to answer one question before going to the next.
Giving examples in the consent process of the kinds of questions that will be asked.
Including the institution’s privacy policy on the survey site.
Providing a thorough debriefing at the end of the study.
To minimize potential risks of harm, a researcher conducting an on-line survey can:
Specify that all respondents must be legal adults.
Suggest that subjects print a copy of the informed consent form for their records.
Comply with the survey software’s Terms of Service agreement.
Design the survey so that no direct or indirect identifiers are collected.
Which of the following examples of using the Internet to conduct research meets the federal definition of research with human subjects?
Downloading a publically available dataset that includes high school students’ academic achievement rates. The data are in aggregate and were derived from multiple school districts from different states.
Gathering data to supplement an oral history project about a local civil rights activist. The activist passed away while the researcher was in the process of conducting in-person interviews with the individual’s social network.
Conducting an on-line focus group with cancer survivors to determine familial support systems. The researcher also invites subjects’ significant others to be a part of the focus group.
Analyzing a website visitor report from several pro-anorexia blogs to determine the popularity of each blog. Access to the blogs is not restricted.
A covered entity may use or disclose PHI without an authorization, or documentation of a waiver or an alteration of authorization, for all of the following EXCEPT:
Use of decedents’ information, with certain representations by the researcher.
Data that does not cross state lines when disclosed by the covered entity.
Activities preparatory to research, with certain representations by the researcher.
Limited data set with an approved data use agreement.
Under HIPAA, a “disclosure accounting” is required:
for all human subjects research that uses PHI without an authorization from the data subject, except for limited data sets.
for all research where the data crosses state lines, otherwise state law applies.
for all human subjects research that uses PHI.
solely at the principle investigator’s discretion.
HIPAA protects a category of information known as protected health information (PHI). PHI includes:
identifiable health information that is created or held by covered entities, provided the data subject is a US citizen.
identifiable health information that is created or held by covered entities.
any identifiable health information.
Identifiable health information that is created or held by covered entities that operate across state lines.
When required, the information provided to the data subject in a HIPAA disclosure accounting …
must be more detailed for disclosures that involve fewer than 50 subject records.
is always the same, regardless of the number of records involved.
is limited to the information elements the data subject specifically requests.
is at the discretion of the organization, given its accounting policies.
HIPAA includes in its definition of “research,” activities related to …
anything a researcher does in a federally-supported laboratory.
development of generalizable knowledge.
quality assessment and improvement.
population health.
Vulnerable persons are those who are less able to protect themselves than other persons in a given situation. The Common Rule (45 CFR 46) has specific requirements for the following vulnerable populations, except:
Pregnant Women
Prisoners
Children
Workers
When workers are asked to participate in a research study, vulnerabilities related to the subject’s employment may include:
Unions may encourage employees to participate with the expectation that “entitlements” may follow from study results.
The research study’s finding could affect an employee’s pay, benefits or promotion potential.
The employer may encourage or deny participation of workers.
Employees may experience pressure from management to participate in the study because the employer perceives the study to be advantageous to the organization.
All of the above
Researcher access to confidential records adds to the vulnerability of workers who participate in workplace studies. Inappropriate release of identifiable private information could adversely affect a worker’s retention of a job, insurance or other employment related benefits. To avoid or minimize these risks, the study design must include adequate safeguards to protect the confidentiality of the information collected. A plan for the proper management of study data and records should clearly define:
Who will have access to the data.
If personal identifiers will be retained and used in the data analysis.
How the data will be collected and secured.
If the study results, if any, will be included in the employee’s personnel records.
All of the above
When a research project includes the collection of biological samples, all planned future uses of the samples, identifiers, and the data obtained from the samples, must be fully explained to the research subject.
True
False
The 1998 FDA regulations for requiring disclosure of significant financial interest reflect which threshold:
Any equity interest in a publicly held company that exceeds $5,000
Any equity interest in a publicly held company that exceeds $30,000
Any equity interest in a publicly held company that exceeds $50,000
Any equity interest in a publicly held company that exceeds $15,000
A situation in which financial or other personal considerations have the potential to compromise or bias professional judgment and objectivity is an example of:
Conflict of Interest
Fraud
Research Misconduct
Malfeasance
According to the DHHS 2011 updated of the PHS federal regulations, the threshold amount for reporting a significant financial interest (investigator and his/her spouse and dependents) is:
Greater than $5,000 of ownership in any single public entity/company.
$25,000 and 5% of ownership in any single entity/company.
Greater than $2,000 or 2% of ownership in any single entity/company.
Greater than $10,000 or 5% of ownership in any single entity/company.
The most important ethical concerns related to conflicts of interest in research are:
Maintaining a supply of volunteers for research studies and their active involvement in research
Ensuring the objectivity of research and the protection of human subjects
Protecting proprietary information and fidelity to contracts with sponsors
Establishing open dialog with sponsors and security of study records
A conflict of interest implies:
The elimination of bias.
The actual involvement of bias.
An awareness of bias.
The potential for bias.
MUS paper persuasive essay help
Follow the Objectives to write the paper about Jazz. You can find some other information by yourself, but you should mostly base on the book which i give you.
Objective #1
Students will understand economic, political, and social legacies of imperialism and colonialism, with reference to linguistic or cultural diversity, for societies, groups, and individuals. Many of the purveyors of Jazz are African American. The curriculum utilizes significant periods in American history as it relates to the evolution of the African American experience. The example of imperialism and colonialism is directly reflected by the evolution of Jazz as a musical experience. The curriculum focuses on the social and cuLtural impact of Jazz as it relates to the African American experience and integration into a traditional Western tradition.
Objective #2
Students will be able to compare historical perspectives on the development of various cultures. Jazz historically transcends the social norm and is characterized by a wide variety of societies, ethnicities, and economic backgrounds. The experience is reflected in Jazz as a social, political, and cultural commentary as well as a musical art form.
1/4 of your grade
In Beethoven, Symphony No. 5 In C Minor, When Is The Opening Motive Is Not A Clear Part Of The Main Musical Idea—As Is The Case, For Example, At 0:53 And 2:20—Where And How Might A Related Musical Figure Still Be Present? essay help online free: essay help online free
In Beethoven, Symphony No. 5 In C Minor, When Is The Opening Motive Is Not A Clear Part Of The Main Musical Idea—As Is The Case, For Example, At 0:53 And 2:20—Where And How Might A Related Musical Figure Still Be Present?
Week 6 Business Pre- test
1. What do franchisees typically have to pay to the franchisor? buy essay help: buy essay help
Week 6 Business Pre- test
1. What do franchisees typically have to pay to the franchisor?
Choose one answer.
a. a one-time franchise fee
b. monthly royalties based on sales
c. nominal fee for business knowledge
d. approximately half of the franchise’s profits each month
e. one-time franchise fee and monthly royalties based on sales
2. When a firm’s expenses are greater than its sales revenue, the firm has a _____.
Choose one answer.
a. profit
b. loss
c. negative cash flow
d. planned economy
e. market economy
3. When interviewing you for an entry-level management position, recruiters will often ask you to describe a problem that you have encountered and how you solved that problem. These recruiters are primarily assessing your ____ skills.
Choose one answer.
a. oral communication
b. written communication
c. leadership
d. critical-thinking
e. technical
4. If the United States exports $100 worth of diamonds to the Kingdom of Mocha and imports $80 worth of bows and arrows, it has a/an _____.
Choose one answer.
a. unfavorable balance of trade
b. trade deficit
c. trade surplus
d. negative cash flow
e. export slide
5. The process of spreading the cost of a fixed asset over the asset’s useful life is called _____.
Choose one answer.
a. expensing
b. depreciation
c. apportioning
d. crediting
e. distributing
6. The Dress Barn offered its customers a reduction in price on some clothing items that were slightly faded from being in the window at the front of the store. This reduction is called a _____.
Choose one answer.
a. cost of goods sold
b. sales allowance
c. sales return
d. sales discount
e. sales bargain
7. Greer, Inc. is developing a marketing information system to try to improve its marketing efforts. Internal sources of marketing data the company could incorporate in the MIS include all except which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. sales forecasts
b. economic conditions
c. inventory levels
d. purchase requests
e. prices of products
8. Ruby Tuesday wants to send a letter to all of the winners of its recent free-lunch promotion, but the manager wants all the letters to be personalized. What type of software will be most efficient in creating personalized letters for each of the fifty winners?
Choose one answer.
a. spreadsheet
b. desktop publishing
c. accounting
d. communications
e. word processing
9. One of the most significant issues of online retailing is _____.
Choose one answer.
a. domain names
b. design of websites
c. direct selling
d. advertising
e. security
10. Statistically, approximately what percentage of all new businesses can be expected to fail within their first seven years?
Choose one answer.
a. 10
b. 25
c. 50
d. 31
e. 70
11. A business will usually choose to produce a new product in an existing facility if the cost is less than the cost of building a new one and the
Choose one answer.
a. type of technology needed for the new product is the same as the technology used by the existing products.
b. new product is an extension of an existing product line already produced in the factory.
c. human resources requirement for the new product and existing products can be satisfied with the facility’s current employees.
d. product design is already completed.
e. existing factory has enough capacity to handle demand for the new product as well as the existing products.
12. When is it estimated that there will be over 2 billion Internet users worldwide?
Choose one answer.
a. 2009 or 2010
b. 2011 or 2012
c. 2013 or 2014
d. 2015 or 2014
e. 2017 or 2018
13. All of the following except which are characteristics of the introduction stage of the product life cycle?
Choose one answer.
a. usually a low profit or even a loss
b. the appearance on the market of refinements or extensions of the original product
c. relatively few competitors
d. often a high price
e. low consumer awareness and acceptance of the product
14. Sally Overall is thinking about two different decisions. One decision is quite risky, while the other decision is more conservative. To help her make the right decision, she decides to calculate the _____.
Choose one answer.
a. quick ratio
b. management analysis
c. money factor
d. risk-return ratio
e. entrepreneurial ratio
15. A statement that projects income and/or expenditures over a specified future period is called a _____.
Choose one answer.
a. financial plan
b. cash flow plan
c. resources plan
d. resource allocation statement
e. budget
16. Needles, Inc. has five of its ten products at the end of the product life cycle. To maintain its market share, the firm must at least find ways to
Choose one answer.
a. reduce the cost of marketing its products.
b. cut manufacturing costs.
c. extend or refine the want-satisfying capability of its products.
d. reduce the number of employees.
e. increase the price of the product.
17. Laura wants to start a business, but she is unsure of the legal form best for her. Short of cash, she has decided to take the form that is the least expensive and most flexible in terms of decision making and implementation. Which would you recommend?
Choose one answer.
a. joint venture
b. partnership
c. sole proprietorship
d. cooperative
e. corporation
18. Rosalea recently switched careers. Previously, she was a college professor, but she felt she needed more real-world experience to help her business students more fully. She became a manager at Dazzle Magazine, where she was in charge of the layout. Always open to new ways of doing things, Rosalea let her staff implement their ideas at times. Rosalea learned firsthand the different roles she had to play as a manager.
It always got stressful when the publication deadline neared. At one point, there was a major mix-up in the layouts for the front cover. Rosalea was not sure of the correct layout because she had allowed one of her employees, Joseph, to modify and run with his idea on this matter. However, she could not ask for Joseph’s help with the covers because he happened to be out of town at the time. Rosalea quickly looked over the layouts but felt that they still needed some work. She decided to ask the design manager for her help. The design manager did not feel comfortable making a decision on the issue, so she did not give Rosalea an answer. Rosalea then went to an employee within her department for advice. That employee suggested some ideas, but Rosalea was still not satisfied. Finally, Rosalea called one of her top graduate students with whom she had kept in contact and asked her if she could offer some ideas. The graduate student quickly came to the magazine’s office and helped Rosalea decide on the alternative that should be implemented. Rosalea greatly appreciated the assistance and the suggestion. The final cover design went to press, and that issue of the magazine was successful. This helped Rosalea realize that considering the big picture was good, but equally important were the little details.
Refer to Dazzle Magazine. The graduate student’s assistance represents which step of the decision-making process?
Choose one answer.
a. evaluate solution
b. generate many alternatives
c. identify problem and opportunity
d. select alternative
e. implement solution
19. The Internet is
Choose one answer.
a. a computerized phone book.
b. a computerized address book for businesses in the United States.
c. a worldwide network of computers linked together through telecommunications.
d. inaccessible unless you are a business owner or government employee.
e. a new version of an electronic game.
20. To compare the productivity of the United States to that of Japan, one should examine their respective ____.
Choose one answer.
a. defense budgets
b. trade deficits
c. gross domestic products
d. stock markets’ performance
e. consumer price indices
21. McLane Distributors, a wholesaler, buys large quantities of health and beauty care products, light bulbs, batteries, canned food, computer disks, and more and sells them to retailers. McLane is a/an _____ wholesaler.
Choose one answer.
a. agent
b. limited-line
c. selected merchandise
d. specialty-line
e. general merchandise
22. GRI management has decided to reinvent the culture of the organization. Previously, the company tried to make jobs more appealing by adding more responsibilities to each job description. However, this did not work. Next, the company decided to add flextime. It believed that this would make employees more dedicated. GRI then introduced even more work options for employees. For example, management decided to group all full-time employees into teams to allow employees with different backgrounds to learn from each other. Many different kinds of teams were allowed, as long as the group members did not interact via the Internet or any other electronic means. The managers reasoned that team members must work face to face to learn from and truly engage with each other. Once these teams were formed, GRI management noticed that the quality of employees’ work was much improved. The managers also observed that people felt much more comfortable with, and tolerant of, each other. Refer to Gina Robinson, Inc. What type of team did GRI management specifically restrict?
Choose one answer.
a. virtuoso team
b. problem-solving team
c. virtual team
d. cross-functional team
e. self-managed team
23. For a cultural diversity program to be successful, it is essential that
Choose one answer.
a. the employees themselves initiate the program.
b. it be given a set time frame in which to show positive results.
c. those who participate get a pay bonus for taking time out of their normal work schedule to participate.
d. it has a strong, sustained commitment from top leadership.
e. it be unstructured and free-flowing so that employees feel free to say whatever is on their minds.
24. Getting the total of cash, marketable securities, and receivables and then dividing that total by the current liabilities results in the _____.
Choose one answer.
a. debt-to-equity ratio
b. debt-to-assets ratio
c. current ratio
d. acid-test ratio
e. inventory turnover
25. If Home Depot, Delta Faucets, and Armstrong Floor Coverings pay for a television show about remodeling a kitchen on the Home and Garden Network, these companies are ____ the show.
Choose one answer.
a. buying time spots for
b. purchasing network time for
c. creating infomercials for
d. sponsoring
e. advertising
26. Razor Company’s blades are in the maturity stage of the product life cycle. How can the company strengthen its market share?
Choose one answer.
a. eliminate less profitable versions of the product
b. redesign the packaging
c. make no style changes
d. emphasize customer service
e. watch for the early buying patterns
27. Corporate officers are
Choose one answer.
a. listed in the corporate charter.
b. elected by stockholders.
c. appointed by the board of directors.
d. appointed by management.
e. elected by incorporators.
28. When Microsoft copyrighted its Windows software, it established a/an ____ monopoly.
Choose one answer.
a. domestic
b. international
c. legal
d. natural
e. unnatural
29. The process of shipping fresh flowers from California to Texas gives ____ utility to the flowers.
Choose one answer.
a. form
b. time
c. place
d. possession
e. very little
30. Consumer products can be divided into the following three categories:
Choose one answer.
a. convenience, shopping, and business.
b. shopping, convenience, and specialty.
c. convenience, component, and accessory.
d. shopping, component, and specialty.
e. business, specialty, and shopping.
31. When a coffee chain in Chicago purchases coffee from Colombia, South America, it
Choose one answer.
a. is importing the coffee.
b. is exporting the coffee.
c. has an absolute advantage.
d. is decreasing the balance-of-trade deficit.
e. is making a big mistake.
32. The types of planned shopping centers are
Choose one answer.
a. neighborhood, convenience, or regional.
b. convenience, community, or neighborhood.
c. community, regional, or national.
d. regional, community, neighborhood, lifestyle.
e. international, neighborhood, or national.
33. Schluster Hardware, Inc., had a gross profit of $380,000, operating expenses of $210,000, and income taxes of $48,000. What is Schlusters net income after taxes?
Choose one answer.
a. $122,000
b. $80,000
c. $208,000
d. $170,000
e. $332,000
34. All of the following would typically be considered consumer products except a _____.
Choose one answer.
a. 2-liter of Coke
b. DVD player
c. prom dress
d. high-powered drill press
e. bag of dog food
35. Computers and software belong to which of the following specialized e-business resources?
Choose one answer.
a. human
b. financial
c. material
d. informational
e. digital
36. Intel decides to issue new stock in order to build a new facility and expand its operations. The receipt of cash from this stock issue would appear in the ____ section of the statement of cash flows.
Choose one answer.
a. operating
b. business
c. equity
d. investing
e. financing
37. By holding focus groups with employees, Robert Keening of Snow Bird Airlines is employing which aspect of total quality management?
Choose one answer.
a. democratic leadership
b. reaching consensus
c. customer satisfaction
d. obtaining feedback
e. employee participation
38. All of the following except which are accurate statements about the expectancy theory?
Choose one answer.
a. It is easy to apply.
b. There are various reasons why employees work.
c. The reasons people work may change.
d. It is necessary to show employees how to attain the outcomes they desire.
e. It is a very complex model of motivation
39. For which advertising medium is the most money spent?
Choose one answer.
a. Television
b. Radio
c. Newspapers
d. Magazines
e. Yellow pages
40. An analyst in the corporate finance department at Chase Manhattan Bank has been assigned to an interdepartmental project involving a major client. He must report to two different supervisors¾the project manager and the manager of his department. This sort of organizational structure is called a ____ structure.
Choose one answer.
a. cluster
b. matrix
c. bureaucratic
d. functional
e. hybrid
41. Regina worked hard and successfully as a salesperson for B&J Realty Company. For the past three years, she surpassed her peers in quality and quantity of sales. Yet in comparing pay, she discovered that she makes less than two salespeople who are well liked by management. Consequently, she accepted a higher-paying job with B&J’s top competitor. To avoid losing other salespeople like Regina, management should understand and apply _____.
Choose one answer.
a. Herzberg’s theory
b. the expectancy theory
c. the equity theory
d. negative reinforcement
e. Theory Y
42. Procter & Gamble purchased NIOXIN Research Labs, Inc., a leader in the scalp care part of the profession hair care category. NIOXIM offers a range of innovative products that are distributed in over 40 countries. This purchase was part of Procter & Gamble’s overall ____ to focus on faster growing, high margin businesses.
Choose one answer.
a. policy
b. tactical plan
c. operational plan
d. strategy
e. standard operating procedures
43. What are the three sets of factors that influence the standards of behavior in an organization?
Choose one answer.
a. organizational norms, circumstances, morals
b. peer pressure, attitudes, social factors
c. historical factors, management attitudes, opportunity
d. opportunity, individual factors, social factors
e. financial factors, opportunity, morals
44. Reagan purchases a corporate bond from Mattel. On the bond it states that Reagan will receive her money back on February 15, 2022. This is the bond’s ____ date.
Choose one answer.
a. declaration
b. maturity
c. conversion
d. redemption
e. expiration
45. Which of the following is not a public relations tool?
Choose one answer.
a. Press conference
b. News release
c. Sponsorship program
d. Trade show
e. Captioned photograph
46. A single marketing mix consists of one type of product with little or no variation, one price, one promotional program aimed at everyone, and ____ distribution system(s) to reach all customers in the total market.
Choose one answer.
a. five
b. four
c. three
d. two
e. one
47. As a manager at Johnson Electric, an armature motor manufacturer, Charles is responsible for quality. As he carries out his controlling function, Charles sets the standard for the number of defective parts per million, and then he gathers the data measuring the actual performance. What third step of the control function should Charles take next?
Choose one answer.
a. change the standards to match the actual performance
b. determine the cause of the discrepancy
c. begin planning again
d. take corrective action
e. motivate his employees
48. Under Herzberg’s theory, when ____ factors are present in the work environment, they act as satisfiers; when ____ factors are absent, they act as dissatisfiers.
Choose one answer.
a. Theory X; Theory Y
b. motivation; hygiene
c. physiological; self-realization
d. Theory Y; Theory X
e. hygiene; motivation
49. A large restaurant with locations throughout the United States has a long-term partnership with Tyson for its poultry and a produce distributor for its fruits and vegetables. These relationships reduce inefficiencies and costs and result in higher customer satisfaction. This restaurant is successfully using _____.
Choose one answer.
a. exclusive distribution
b. vertical channel integration
c. supply chain management
d. intensive distribution
e. wholesale intermediaries
50. Which organization issues management, marketing, and technical publications of interest to present and prospective small-business managers that can be obtained from the U.S. Government Printing Office?
Choose one answer.
a. SBI
b. SBIC
c. SEC
d. SBA
e. SBDC
COM3131 Week 1 Quiz Latest 2018 scholarship essay help
Question
Week 1 quiz
Question 1
Which of the following statements is true of values?
Answers:
Terminal values are the “hows” of goal setting.
Instrumental values are the “what’s” of goal setting.
Tangible values are the standards of behavior by which we achieve desired ends.
Intangible values can be defined differently for each person.
Question 2
_____ are concepts or beliefs about desirable outcomes that transcend specific situations and guide an individual’s selection or evaluation of behaviors and events.
Answers:
Skills
Traits
Values
Goals
Question 3
Which of the following is an example of an instrumental value?
Answers:
Salvation
Prosperity
Sense of accomplishment
Compassion
Question 4
Which of the following criteria of the SMART system is missing in the statement “I will sell 15 percent more than usual this week”?
Answers:
Measurable
Time bound
Realistic
Specificity
Question 5
Which of the following is concerned with recognizing that an issue involves an ethical question, making an ethical judgment, and actually acting ethically?
Answers:
Ethical empowerment
Ethics test
Ethical audit
Ethical decision making
Question 6
Which of the following ethics test is based on the question: “Am I thinking this action or decision is right just because someone with appropriate authority or knowledge says it is right?”
Answers:
The test of light of day
The test of the purified idea
The test of one’s best self
The test of common sense
Question 7
Sarah, a new team member, wants her co-workers to be able to trust her. In this scenario, which of the following practices would help her?
Answers:
Being consistent and predictable in her work
Making self-flattering statements about her capabilities
Revealing confidential information about others without permission
Participating in gossip about specific individuals
Question 8
In the context of Johari Window, the larger the hidden area, the:
Answers:
greater the trust in your interpersonal relationships.
lesser the chances of your relationships developing beyond the acquaintance level.
lesser the chance that others will be unaware about you.
greater the chances for others to determine strategies for working effectively with you.
Question 9
Which of the following statements is true of trust?
Answers:
Trust is a right; it cannot be earned.
Trust is situation-dependent, and it evolves over time.
Trust is very easy to develop, but it is very difficult to destroy.
Trust is an aspect of relationships that is constant across all relationships.
Question 10
Gerald manages the marketing team in his company. Most of his team members are new to the organization. Which of the following practices would best help Gerald in building trust within his team?
Answers:
Facilitating self-disclosure among his team members
Encouraging his team members to focus on self-protection
Being judgmental when his team members share their ideas
Micromanaging his team members
Question 11
Which of the following is an example of self-description as opposed to self-disclosure?
Answers:
Disclosing your organization’s name at a conference
Sharing your view on the nation’s political system with a colleague
Expressing your spiritual beliefs to a friend
Disclosing the problems you are facing at home to a co-worker
Question 12
The _____ area of the Johari Window denotes information about us that is apparent to others but not to ourselves.
Answers:
blind
unknown
open
hidden
Question 13
Which of the following statements is true of procrastination?
Answers:
It gives ample time to review a piece of work for accuracy.
It reduces stress between an employee and his or her co-workers.
It avoids alienating co-workers.
It is usually associated with avoidance behavior.
Question 14
Which of the following stress management strategies primarily involves engaging our ability to recall a special place or memory and invite the same positive feelings or sensations to return?
Answers:
Progressive muscle relaxation
Visualization
Guided imagery
Mindfulness-based stress reduction
Question 15
Which of the following statements is true of time management?
Answers:
It is helpful only in our professional lives.
It restricts our activities to one arena at the expense of the other.
It has little effect on reducing our stress levels.
It helps focus our energy on well-chosen activities.
Question 16
_____ is a highly structured educational approach that primarily combines meditation and yoga exercises to help people achieve a greater sense of control, make choices with clarity and awareness, and promote healthy living.
Answers:
Stress reduction intervention
Mindfulness-based stress reduction
Cognitive therapy
Somatic training
Question 17
Jason is a successful manager because he has the required zeal, commitment, and ability to remain persistent in the face of adversity.Which fundamental component of emotional intelligence does Jason exhibit?
Answers:
Self-awareness
Motivation
Empathy
Persuasion
Question 18
Which of the following is a key impact of emotional intelligence in leadership?
Answers:
Less impulsiveness
Increased depression
Lack of transformational leadership
Decreased concern for mastering skills
Question 19
Richard runs a supermarket chain. All his stores have been experiencing declining sales for the past one year. Richard blames this depletion in sales on the increasing competition in the market. Which of the following theories best explains Richard’s behavior in this scenario?
Answers:
Attribution theory
Two-factor theory
Equity theory
Expectancy theory
Question 20
Stephen Covey refers to the concept of gaining self-awareness through understanding how others view us and how we are shaped by others’ opinions of us as the _____.
Answers:
glass ceiling
social mirror
learning curve
catch-22 situation
Question 21
Which of the following is NOT an effective way of increasing self-awareness?
Answers:
Keeping your thoughts and feelings to yourself, without sharing it with others
Working in a country other than your home country
Reading books on subjects that are beyond your career field
Accepting what others say about you as partially
Question 22
In the context of self-awareness among managers, which of the following statements is NOT true?
Answers:
Self-awareness leads to accurate judgments and enables managers to make good decisions.
Self-aware managers do not need to make any modifications to their personal behavior.
Self-awareness when low can lead to an unrealistic notion of one’s competencies.
Self-aware managers are not only aware of their strengths but also their weaknesses.
Question 23
_____ is best described as the act of attributing one’s own attitudes, characteristics, or shortcomings to others.
Answers:
Self-description
Projection
Selective perception
Individualization
Question 24
The tendency to adjust our behavior relative to the changing demands of social or environmental situations is known as:
Answers:
social regulation.
self-actualization.
self-monitoring.
social realization.
Question 25
Mark’s boss has shortlisted three employees—Jack, Justin, and Grace—who are eligible for promotion. It is Mark’s duty to promote any two employees from the chosen people. Mark decides not to promote Grace because he believes that women are not achievement-oriented, and they cannot completely focus on their work. Making such generalized assumptions that influence an individual’s perceptions is known as:
Answers:
selective perception.
whistle blowing.
stereotyping.
projection.
Which Of The Following Is NOT A Function Of Skeletal Muscle? homework essay help: homework essay help
Week Four Quiz
Chapter 9 Muscular System: Histology and Physiology________________________________________
1. Which of the following is NOT a function of skeletal muscle?
a. body movement
b. maintenance of posture
c. respiration
d. constriction of organs
e. production of heat
2. Which of the following is true?
a. Skeletal muscle is capable of spontaneous contraction.
b. Smooth muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs.
c. Cardiac muscle cells have multiple nuclei.
d. Smooth muscle cells are long and cylindrical.
e. There is a small amount of smooth muscle in the heart.
3. Which type of muscle tissue has cells that branch?
a. skeletal muscle
b. smooth muscle
c. cardiac muscle
d. both skeletal and cardiac muscle
e. both cardiac and smooth muscle
4. Hypertrophy of skeletal muscles from weight lifting is caused by an increase in the
a. number of muscle fibers.
b. size of muscle fibers.
c. number of striations.
d. number of nuclei within the muscle fibers.
e. number of muscle cells.
5. Actin myofilaments
a. resemble bundles of minute golf clubs.
b. contain both myosin and tropomyosin.
c. are held in place by the M line.
d. contain strands of fibrous actin.
e. are the thickest proteins in muscle.
6. When an action potential reaches the presynaptic terminal,
a. calcium ions diffuse into the presynaptic terminal through voltage-gated ion channels.
b. acetylcholine moves into the presynaptic terminal.
c. a local potential is generated in the presynaptic terminal.
d. ligand-gated ion channels in the presynaptic terminal are opened.
e. nothing else happens.
7. In excitation-contraction coupling,
a. calcium ions must bind with myosin to expose active sites on actin.
b. myosin heads bind to exposed active sites on actin.
c. cross-bridges form between myosin heads and calcium ions.
d. movement of the troponin-tropomyosin complex causes actin myofilaments to slide.
e. ATP binds to actin myofilaments.
8. Which of the following helps explain the increased tension seen in multiple wave summation?
a. increased motor unit recruitment
b. increased concentration of calcium ions around the myofibrils
c. exposure of more active sites on myosin myofilaments
d. the breakdown of elastic elements in the cell
e. decreased stimulus frequency
9. An isotonic contraction is described as
a. action potential frequency is high enough that no relaxation of muscle fibers occurs.
b. a muscle produces constant tension during contraction.
c. a muscle produces an increasing tension during contraction.
d. a muscle produces increasing tension as it shortens.
e. a muscle produces tension, but the length of the muscle is increasing.
10. Which type of respiration occurs in the mitochondria?
a. anaerobic respiration
b. aerobic respiration
c. both anaerobic and aerobic respiration
Chapter 10 Muscular System: Gross Anatomy________________________________________
1. The sternocleidomastoid muscle extends from the mastoid process of the temporal bone to the sternum and medial clavicle. When both sternocleidomastoid muscles contract, the head is flexed. The end of the muscle that connects to the sternum is the
a. origin.
b. belly.
c. body.
d. insertion.
e. fixator.
2. Which of the following represents a class I lever system?
a. crossing your legs
b. hyperextension of the head
c. standing on your tiptoes
d. flexion of the elbow to elevate the hand
e. lifting weight with your arm
3. In order to stabilize the hyoid so that the larynx can be elevated in swallowing, the _____ muscle group is used.
a. Pterygoid
b. Infrahyoid
c. Auricularis
d. Suprahyoid
e. Hyoglossus
4. If abdominal muscles are contracted while the vertebral column is fixed this will aid in
a. vomiting.
b. childbirth.
c. urination.
d. defecation.
e. All of these choices are correct.
5. Which muscle will depress the scapula or elevate the ribs?
a. levator scapulae
b. serratus anterior
c. pectoralis minor
d. subclavius
e. rhomboideus major
6. Which of the following muscles extends the forearm and has its insertion on the ulna?
a. Deltoid
b. biceps brachii
c. triceps brachii
d. Brachialis
e. Coracobrachialis
7. The gluteus maximus
a. does most of the work in “sit-ups.”
b. accounts for a sprinter’s stance.
c. allows one to sit cross-legged.
d. is used in the knee-jerk reflex.
e. is a common site for injections.
8. Label muscle “A” on the diagram.
a. orbicularis oculi
b. temporalis
c. Trapezius
d. Sternocleidomastoid
e. masseter
9. Label muscle “A” on the diagram.
a. linea alba
b. serratus anterior
c. rectus abdominis
d. external oblique
e. internal oblique
10. What does “A” represent?
a. Coracobrachialis
b. Deltoid
c. pectoralis major
d. biceps brachii
e. serratus anterior
PHI210 Week 6 Assignment Exam 1 Latest 2017 essay help tips
Question
Question 1
Aaron is choosing his classes for the upcoming college semester and making sure they align with his future career plans. Which BEST describes the habit of critical thinking he is practicing?
Question 2
You can strengthen the quality of your opinion on an issue by ______ people who think differently than you.
Question 3
Which of these questions has the most potential for debate?
Question 4
Which habit of critical thinking do individuals who keep food diaries and practice daily exercise BEST represent?
Question 5
A rule of thumb for using to critical thinking to find solutions and make decisions is to seek which of the following?
Question 6
Which statement BEST summarizes the barriers to critical thinking explained in this chapter?
Question 7
Which of the following BEST summarizes the relationship between groups and culture and critical thinking?
Question 8
Which statement BEST describes the role of emotions in political issues and/or elections?
Question 9
Which strategy helps combat hostility?
Question 10
Ever since she was in high school, Tamille has been deeply committed to her belief that animal testing in all forms is wrong. One day she gets into a debate about this topic with her classmate Carissa, a strong proponent of animal testing, and she finds herself getting angry and emotional during the conversation. Which is the MOST likely explanation for Tamille’s reaction?
Question 11
Which of the following is TRUE of an inductive argument?
Question 12
In what way can evaluating inductive arguments be more difficult than validating deductive arguments?
Question 13
Vicky is trying to convince Todd that he should eat at the new Thai restaurant in town because the food is tasty, affordable, and healthy.She then explains that the food at the restaurant is healthy because the chefs avoid hydrogenated oils and use natural sweeteners when possible. Vicky’s argument about why the food is healthy serves as which of the following?
Question 14
An inductive argument USUALLY starts with which of the following?
Question 15
Blaise wants to convince his manager to allow well-behaved pets in the office. His inductive argument would be strongest if he provided which of the following support?
Question 16
Which of the following represents a “post hoc propter ergo hoc” fallacy?
Question 17
William took a shower on a cold afternoon in winter.Promptly after getting out of the shower he put his bathrobe on and walked outside to get the newspaper. The next night he felt achy and feverish. His wife told him it was because he went out in the cold with wet hair. This is an example of the _________ fallacy.
Question 18
A 1987 Public Service Announcement showed a man who held up an egg and said, “This is your brain,” then picked up a frying pan and added, “This is drugs.” He then cracks open the egg, fries the contents, and says, “This is your brain on drugs.” Finally he looks up at the camera and asks, “Any questions?” This is an example of a(n) __________ fallacy.
Question 19
Which of the following represents an “ad hominem” fallacy?
Question 20
4 out of 4 points
_________ is characterized by trying to persuade the audience by arousing feelings such as pity, fear, patriotism, flattery, etc. in place of presenting rational arguments.
Question 21
A geologist has been studying a particular type of rock for almost 25 years. He recently had some ideas about cloud formations and shared them in a journal article. Which of the following led to a loss in the expert’s credibility?
Question 22
Why should you evaluate claims against things you already know?
Question 23
Don was researching apple production for a farm stand orchard. He found a .com that discussed apple production and sold apple cider, a .com that discussed apple production and sold dried fruit, a .org that educated the community on growing apple trees, and a .org that advocated for removing genetically modified (GMO) trees from orchards. Based upon what you know about website types and target audiences, which site should Don consider the MOST credible?
Question 24
Kevin tells his coworker Luis that it is going to rain tomorrow. Which of the following scenarios would make Kevin’s claim most credible to Luis?
Question 25
According to the text, which of the following is an essential question that should be asked while evaluating a source?